Can you give references for the following statement from your Revelation 5 article? I am interested in searching further regarding it. “A son could redeem what his father had lost.”

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How is it possible for God to set aside divinity? I’ve struggled with getting my mind around God becoming man, entering into time, doing His restoration work, then leaving (though depositing the Holy Spirit to remain until the Gathering). Your comments have put my mind spinning.

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I’m not sure if you are familiar with the discoveries of Ron Wyatt (a Biblical Researcher/Archaeology), which are believed to include the remains of Noah’s Ark, Sodom and Gomorrah and aslo the Ark of the Covenant. What do you think?

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I was just reading about the origin of Satan and his fall…it says that he will be expelled from Heaven at the end of the Tribulation and bound in the Abyss until the 1000 years is up - does that mean that he is in Heaven (or some part of it) now?

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It seems to me that Jesus gave up his divinity when He became a man. He was still God and man but in order to pay the price to redeem us he had to do it as a sinless man.

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If the dinosaurs were genetic tinkering by satan and an abomination,why did Noah take them into the ark?

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Whilst I firmly believe that Jesus was crucified and ‘rose again’, most literature I’ve read about the actual crucifixion process has the nails driven through the wrists. However in the Gospels, Thomas places his fingers through the ‘holes in Jesus’s hands’. So I was wondering what your view on this is.

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I’m just curious as to a couple of your essays. One concerning dinosarus and the other about the great pyramid. What I’d like to know, is this speculation on your part based on the biblical stories? Or do you have any particular references in the bible, or else where, that gives these ideas?

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In this week’s teaching, you mentioned that Jesus is still in human form, represented by the inference of the Lamb that appeared to the slain. This is an issue that has been bouncing around in my mind for about a year or so now. (I’ll try to put this in some logical question, but I’m still not clear on this issue yet.)

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Could you please explain your thoughts on why the painting of the Last Supper by Da Vinci creates so much speculation? It isn’t as if he was there when the last supper occurred and yet the way people react to it, makes me think that it was inspired by Satan to get mankind to doubt the Gospel.

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