I am confused in regard to the marriage supper of the Lamb in Rev 19:7. Who is the wife spoken of there for it says the wife has made herself ready…is this reference to the church or Israel? Why would the church have to make herself ready, in what respect? Is there more than one wedding in scripture? If Christ to be married to both Israel (Isaiah 54:5) and the church (Ephes 5:25) this would have to be the case. If so, then who is the bride of Christ?
The phrase “Bride of Christ” does not appear in the original language of the New Testament, but can be reasonably inferred from places like John 3:27-29, Ephes. 5:25-27, 2 Cor. 11:2, and Rev. 19:7. The Bride has made herself ready by donning the fine linen, bright and clean, that has been given to her (Rev. 19:8). This is symbolic of our righteousness. Although it has been imputed to us by faith (Romans 3:21-24) we have to “put it on” by agreeing to accept the Lord’s death as payment in full for our sins. Many people don’t realize that while the Lord died for all the sins of the world (John 1:29) only those who ask for His righteousness will receive it (Matt. 7:7-8).
In the Old Testament God frequently referred to Himself as Israel’s husband. Isaiah 54:5, Jeremiah 31:32, and Ezekiel 16:32 are examples. But only the Church can be called the Bride of Christ.