Q. I often see people say that Jesus (and the Bible) promote Socialism. While I know most Christians are against Socialism, I can see passages where it does sound like the early Church was practicing what we now call Socialism. Just one passage for example: 2 Corinthians 8: 13-16 and there are others. Any light you can shed on this would be appreciated.
Q. Why does the bible say that Jesus came to save the world and not condemn it but also Jesus says He didn’t come to bring peace but a sword turning son against father, etc?
Q. Why would Jesus give the command, “Go and sin no more,” in John 8:11, if future sin is pardoned and freely embraced? And is future sin not effectively sin until it becomes established and is thus past? Is one’s own future sin to be lamented when free will is still available? Does grace truly received let us go forward though it’s misunderstood by the world? Or does grace abolish sin, even the future kind?
Q. James 2: 1-13 appears to be an admonition primarily against showing partiality to the rich in any given church. Is there also an underlying principle implied not to show partiality or favoritism in any way, shape or form towards anyone in the Body for any reason (not just the wealthy)?
Q. I heard a pastor preaching on Galatians 6:2 (bear one another’s burdens, and thereby fulfill the law of Christ). He strongly recommended sharing our most hurtful experiences with some one else (within the church or outside the church). And if some one wanted to share their hurtful experience with me, I should just listen and not judge or try solving their problem. I don’t think “manufacturing” the condition of bearing one another’s burden proves that we fulfill the law of Christ. This pastor preaches about grace and the freedom we have in Christ, but then lays yokes like this upon his congregation. This sounds like a good topic to preach about, but I don’t think taking on more burdens to fulfill the law is what was intended in this verse. I would like to know your thoughts.
Q. Re. 2 Corinthians 12:9: I have a question about this verse, ‘My grace is sufficient for you, for My strength is made perfect in weakness.’ Then Paul says “For when I am weak, then I am strong.” What does “weakness” mean in these verses? I know that Paul wrote them in the context of his persecution and hardships, but what does that mean in a Christian’s everyday life who -thanks to God- doesn’t have to endure persecution? What are our weaknesses in our everyday “ordinary” Christian life? What count as weakness? Could they be our limited abilities which can be mental, emotional and physical? Plus our struggle with our sinful nature and our sins?
Q. I noticed something repeated in Scripture. When theft is involved, David mentions a 4 times repayment when being confronted by Nathan, and Zaccheus mentions that same 4 times repayment to bring restitution for the things he has stolen. Paul then says (post-Cross) let the thief stop stealing basically and work with his hands- no mention of singular, let alone quadruple repayment for restitution. So twofold question: what if any is/was the significance of a 4 times repayment (is the number arbitrary?) and is it presently incumbent upon repentant thieves to repay or to just cease and work with their hands?
Q. What do Matthew 5:21-22 mean about insulting and calling one’s neighbor a fool? Does this relate to judging others? Also, what do Matt. 5:33-37 mean? I’ve interpreted them as meaning that we shouldn’t promise things because we can’t insure that they’ll happen, but I’m not sure – I might be missing something here.
Q. What does it say in the Bible about people who cuss or say negative things to others?