Q. I came across your site earlier this year and have looked forward to reading it every day possible since. When you have a chance I wonder if you could give me your thoughts on something. Even as a child and to this day, when I read 1 Thes.4:15 – 17, I wonder why the word “remain” is used. The verses make it sound like, at the day of the resurrection/rapture, there will be few true believers left alive, like there is a great worldwide deathly persecution just before that day.
Q. Hebrews 13:5 says that God will never leave us nor forsake us, but Philippians 4:9 says that God will be with us if we continue to do what God tells us. How do I reconcile these verses?
Q. In Ezekiel 47:3-5 are the water depths symbolic/prophetic or were listing the ankles, knees, loins, and unfordable simply a standard of measure? I don’t know why but somehow as I read it I got an image of the statue of Nebuchadnezzar. Any help is always appreciated. God bless.
Q. I have a question about Rev. 3:10: “I will keep you from the hour of trial that is coming on the whole world.” Is this a literal “hour”? How does this compare to the other uses of the word hour in Revelation, especially the destruction of Babylon in “a single hour”, Rev. 18:10, “the hour of his (God’s) judgment”, Rev. 14:7, and the 1/2 hour of silence in Rev. 8. The implication that you use from Rev. 3:10 is that hour refers to the 7 years of tribulation. How do we know what actual period of time “hour” refers to?
Q. I believe in the pretrib-rapture. But there are some who say Christians are setting ourselves up for a big disappointment. I know there’s different views and I have studied all of those. Can these Bible prophecy experts say for sure that this is the only way it can happen or is there a possibility that a pre trib may not be right. I honestly believe with all my heart that the pre trib is the only one that makes sense according to the scripture. However is there a chance that we could be interpreting Scripture wrong?
Q. I’ve heard Philippians 4:19 used many times for believing the Lord to supply our needs. My question is, if I take the verse within the context it sounds like the Philippians sent Paul gifts [or supported his ministry so to speak]. Wouldn’t this be why the Lord supplied their needs? My point is they gave first and I’m guessing with the right intentions. The Lord saw their hearts and blessed them. Would that be accurate?
Q. When the Bible speaks of 3 1/2 years how do we know it means 3 1/2 years as the Bible also says a day is as a thousand years. How do we determine time in the Bible?
Q. In regards to a generation of years, God stated that no one would live longer than 120 years after the great flood. As far as I am aware some individuals have come to live very close to 120 years but not to 120. So does this mean that the average life span could be longer than 70-80?
Q. Paul’s effort to communicate the coalition of the law and death becomes very difficult to a simple mind when he says : “for until the law sin was in the world , but sin is not imputed when there is no law. ” Roman 5:13 What does this mean and what is your take on this? Does it mean that those who lived sinful lives before the Law was given , lived guiltless in sin?
Q. I would like to hear your thoughts regarding Genesis 49:17-18 and how it relates (or “if” it relates) to Jeremiah 8:16-17. Are the two related, and if so do you believe that the Bible teaches that the Anti-Christ will arise out of the tribe of Dan?