Q. I have heard Acts 19:13-16 used to support that only those called to the ministries of deliverance and spiritual warfare may cast out demons in Jesus’ name. But that doesn’t seem right to me. It seems to me that anyone with the Holy Spirit in them should be able to invoke his name and that forces of hell must obey. I do notice that that the exorcists in Acts 19 were Jews, not Christians, But I don’t see how it relates to the demon’s response. Why was the demon unaffected by the use of the Lord’s name? I thought demons couldn’t stand to hear the name of Jesus. Can you help clarify what this passage is saying?
Q. Re: Matt 17:24-27. What is Jesus saying when he implies to Peter that foreigners must pay the tax and that the subjects are exempt? Does this have to do with being exempt from paying the penalty of sin or is there more to it, such as gov’t taxing schemes?
Q. Could you please advise me whether we should be buried or cremated? I have always thought that Christians must be buried as a whole body and not cremated, as this could be against God’s law. The way cemeteries are going these days (not much room), I wonder if cremation will become law. Thank you so much for your teaching, you have helped me so much.
Q. Re: Zechariah 14:20-21. On that day HOLY TO THE LORD will be inscribed on the bells of the horses, and the cooking pots in the LORD’s house will be like the sacred bowls in front of the altar. Every pot in Jerusalem and Judah will be holy to the LORD Almighty, and all who come to sacrifice will take some of the pots and cook in them. And on that day there will no longer be a Canaanite in the house of the LORD Almighty.
Can you tell me what is meant that there will no longer be a Canaanite in the house of the LORD? Who are the Canaanites? Thank you so very much for all you do. Continue reading…
Q. In Colossians 4:16 Paul references the church at Laodicea and directs them to not only read his letter to the Colossians there but also that the Colossians read the letter from Laodicea. What letter was written from Laodicea and why do you think he was so emphatic about both letters being read by both churches?
Q. In a recent article you wrote, “Of course the real issue is whether the Bible is the inspired word of God or not. If it is, then Jesus, the thief, and Lazarus all went to Paradise when thy died, just like the Bible says, until Jesus went to Heaven to sprinkle His blood on the altar there and opened its gates to the spirits of all dead believers who would follow.” Since the blood of Jesus has been completely spilled out from his body according to John 19:34, how did he do the sprinkling?
Q. Help me understand how in 2 Kings 2:11 Elijah was taken up to Heaven when Heaven wasn’t opened until after the cross? Does the word for Heaven in this verse actually mean the bosom of Abraham or Paradise rather than the throne of God?
Q. Re: Whose Home Was It? After hours of research and cross referencing, I just don’t see how you came to the conclusions you did about Mary, Martha, and Lazarus and their relationship to Simon the Leper. Could you let me know how you did, as I am most interested?
Also, for many reasons, I don’t believe the passage in Luke 7:37 are the same people either. The passage does not mention the woman by name and I don’t believe Jesus would have told Mary, at this stage, her sins were forgiven. Other reasons is this Pharisee didn’t show Jesus the courtesy or respect I believe those in above passage would have.
Q. Re: Matt. 24:36. Why did Jesus not know the time of return ? Was it because He had divested Himself of aspects of His deity in order to ‘take flesh’ and be able to die for us, or was there another reason? I have heard pastors say that He still does not know, but surely that would make Him less than God. He must know all that the Father knows, now that He is back with Him. Also was His comment to do with the rapture or second coming? I also have always believed the rapture to be number determined, but an omniscient God, who ‘sees the end from the beginning’ must surely know when that number will be completed.
Q. I love your website and have learned so very much through your explanations and teachings. My question today is, if we as the Church are considered a called out people and are neither Jew nor Gentile anymore, why does the Romans 11:25 verse apply to the rapture? I know that after the rapture of the Church God will return to his dealings with Israel, but was unsure if the Fullness of the Gentiles really applies to the Church.