Q. “I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things.” Please tell me what God meant when he quoted this!
Q. Regarding the reason Job was afflicted by Satan in Chapters 1 and 2. You’ve made the point many times that is was due to the sin of self-righteousness, he was out of fellowship with God and thus Satan was allowed to afflict him. This is diametrically opposed to what we read in the Word of God. In Job 1:8 God says to Satan “Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil?”, no condemnation here. Satan’s only response was not to point out any sin, but to say (v. 9-11) “Doth Job fear God for nought? Hast not thou made an hedge about him, and about his house, and about all that he hath on every side? thou hast blessed the work of his hands, and his substance is increased in the land. But put forth thine hand now, and touch all that he hath, and he will curse thee to thy face.”
We know that Job was not without sin but in the eyes of God he was perfect and we are told this twice. So we must conclude that Job was afflicted by Satan only because God allowed it to happen to prove to Satan how a believer can live a life pleasing to God no matter of one’s circumstances in life.
Q. Thank you for your wonderful web site, I have learned so much. It’s very exciting for me to be able to go to gracethrufaith and learn everyday. I am not an evangelist. It just isn’t a gift I have. I love to talk about the grace of Jesus with my friends and fellow believers but when it comes to evangelizing to others I seem to fall short. Would you please explain Hebrews 8:11 in the context of the new covenant God has made for us?
Q. Why was the name of Jesus changed with the translation of scripture? When you translate what I’m saying in my mother tongue into English you don’t also translate my name into English. Why was His name is not kept in its Hebrew form since He was born a Jew?
Q. I have heard Acts 19:13-16 used to support that only those called to the ministries of deliverance and spiritual warfare may cast out demons in Jesus’ name. But that doesn’t seem right to me. It seems to me that anyone with the Holy Spirit in them should be able to invoke his name and that forces of hell must obey. I do notice that that the exorcists in Acts 19 were Jews, not Christians, But I don’t see how it relates to the demon’s response. Why was the demon unaffected by the use of the Lord’s name? I thought demons couldn’t stand to hear the name of Jesus. Can you help clarify what this passage is saying?
Q. Re: Matt 17:24-27. What is Jesus saying when he implies to Peter that foreigners must pay the tax and that the subjects are exempt? Does this have to do with being exempt from paying the penalty of sin or is there more to it, such as gov’t taxing schemes?
Q. Could you please advise me whether we should be buried or cremated? I have always thought that Christians must be buried as a whole body and not cremated, as this could be against God’s law. The way cemeteries are going these days (not much room), I wonder if cremation will become law. Thank you so much for your teaching, you have helped me so much.
Q. Re: Zechariah 14:20-21. On that day HOLY TO THE LORD will be inscribed on the bells of the horses, and the cooking pots in the LORD’s house will be like the sacred bowls in front of the altar. Every pot in Jerusalem and Judah will be holy to the LORD Almighty, and all who come to sacrifice will take some of the pots and cook in them. And on that day there will no longer be a Canaanite in the house of the LORD Almighty.
Can you tell me what is meant that there will no longer be a Canaanite in the house of the LORD? Who are the Canaanites? Thank you so very much for all you do. Continue reading…
Q. In Colossians 4:16 Paul references the church at Laodicea and directs them to not only read his letter to the Colossians there but also that the Colossians read the letter from Laodicea. What letter was written from Laodicea and why do you think he was so emphatic about both letters being read by both churches?
Q. In a recent article you wrote, “Of course the real issue is whether the Bible is the inspired word of God or not. If it is, then Jesus, the thief, and Lazarus all went to Paradise when thy died, just like the Bible says, until Jesus went to Heaven to sprinkle His blood on the altar there and opened its gates to the spirits of all dead believers who would follow.” Since the blood of Jesus has been completely spilled out from his body according to John 19:34, how did he do the sprinkling?