Q. In “Another Dispensation?” you said, “The primary difference between Law and Grace was that before the cross a believer was required to express his or her faith by keeping the Law.” [last sentence]. What do you mean by “keeping the Law” ? James 2:10 says – “For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become guilty of all of it.” Continue reading…
Q. Re: Genesis 4:3-5.
In the course of time Cain brought some of the fruits of the soil as an offering to the LORD. But Abel brought fat portions from some of the firstborn of his flock. The LORD looked with favor on Abel and his offering, but on Cain and his offering he did not look with favor. So Cain was very angry, and his face was downcast.
Why did God not have respect for Cain’s offering ? Continue reading…
Q. At the end of Genesis 1, God said everything was “very good”. That statement right there precludes any possibility of evil existing during the creation week.
If everything was made in the presence of God where darkness cannot exist then how could Satan be tempted to be full of pride? in other words, how is it known that the concept of evil/darkness/sin could be chosen over God’s way? or, what would cause Satan to seek out something that he’s not aware of?
Q. I recently read Isaiah 24 in light of recent events around the globe. However, I cannot find any discourse on this particular passage and would like to have some enlightenment on it. Having followed your teachings on many subjects, especially on end times, I would like your view on the passage if you would be so kind.
Q. “I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things.” Please tell me what God meant when he quoted this!
Q. Regarding the reason Job was afflicted by Satan in Chapters 1 and 2. You’ve made the point many times that is was due to the sin of self-righteousness, he was out of fellowship with God and thus Satan was allowed to afflict him. This is diametrically opposed to what we read in the Word of God. In Job 1:8 God says to Satan “Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil?”, no condemnation here. Satan’s only response was not to point out any sin, but to say (v. 9-11) “Doth Job fear God for nought? Hast not thou made an hedge about him, and about his house, and about all that he hath on every side? thou hast blessed the work of his hands, and his substance is increased in the land. But put forth thine hand now, and touch all that he hath, and he will curse thee to thy face.”
We know that Job was not without sin but in the eyes of God he was perfect and we are told this twice. So we must conclude that Job was afflicted by Satan only because God allowed it to happen to prove to Satan how a believer can live a life pleasing to God no matter of one’s circumstances in life.
Q. Thank you for your wonderful web site, I have learned so much. It’s very exciting for me to be able to go to gracethrufaith and learn everyday. I am not an evangelist. It just isn’t a gift I have. I love to talk about the grace of Jesus with my friends and fellow believers but when it comes to evangelizing to others I seem to fall short. Would you please explain Hebrews 8:11 in the context of the new covenant God has made for us?
Q. Why was the name of Jesus changed with the translation of scripture? When you translate what I’m saying in my mother tongue into English you don’t also translate my name into English. Why was His name is not kept in its Hebrew form since He was born a Jew?
Q. I have heard Acts 19:13-16 used to support that only those called to the ministries of deliverance and spiritual warfare may cast out demons in Jesus’ name. But that doesn’t seem right to me. It seems to me that anyone with the Holy Spirit in them should be able to invoke his name and that forces of hell must obey. I do notice that that the exorcists in Acts 19 were Jews, not Christians, But I don’t see how it relates to the demon’s response. Why was the demon unaffected by the use of the Lord’s name? I thought demons couldn’t stand to hear the name of Jesus. Can you help clarify what this passage is saying?
Q. Re: Matt 17:24-27. What is Jesus saying when he implies to Peter that foreigners must pay the tax and that the subjects are exempt? Does this have to do with being exempt from paying the penalty of sin or is there more to it, such as gov’t taxing schemes?