Q. In a previous article you wrote:

“I believe it was always the Lord’s intention that we remain an agrarian society.  Building cities, inventing labor saving devices, and pursuing activities associated with leisure and self fulfillment all came through the rebellious line of Cain.”

Where is it written that Cain’s line was rebellious?  After Cain’s banishment, Genesis 4 does not appear to pass moral judgment his decedents or on their activities:  Where did the negative characterization of Cain’s line originate?

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Q. 1 John 4:1-3 admonishes us to “not believe every spirit… but to test the spirits.”  Further, “every spirit” is of God if it confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh.

What are those “spirits” we are to test?  Am I correct in assuming that the “spirits” we are to test are the message a speaker or writer promulgates?  That a speaker/writer who denies the divinity of Jesus is not of God?
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Q. Please explain 1 John 5:8 and, if you could, 1 John 5:16-18…. sin leading to death and not leading to death. Thanks for your supernatural insight.

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Q. I am very thankful for this website.   I believe that God has used this to confirm many things that He has shown me and He has also used it to teach me (of which I have gone to confirm it through His Word!).  Thank you for your obedience to your ministry!

I was reading your article about Contemplative Prayer (which I had never heard about) and looked up Deut. 18 to read about how we are to not have anything to do with people who practice witchcraft etc.

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Q. Genesis 6:6 says, “And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart.”  But in Numbers 23:19 it says,  “God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?”  I know and I believe in my heart that there isn’t any contradiction in the Word of God.  But I would really appreciate any explanation on why there seems to be one here.  The verbs in both verses are the same in Hebrew.

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Q. If you read Proverbs 16:4 that The LORD hath made all things for himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil, does not this imply that the Westminster Confession of Faith regarding election and predestination of both the good and evil to be true?

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Q. When the Bible mentions Gentiles, I believe that it is speaking specifically to a certain race of people.  For example, in Genesis chapter 10, it talks about the sons of Noah and their offspring.  The Bible states that one of Noah’s sons Japheth, is where the Gentiles originated.  And when the gentiles are mentioned in the New Testament, I believe that they were referring to the Romans.  What’s your thought on this?

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Q. My pastor had a sermon the other week and stated a person should get baptized by the name of Jesus Christ not just  by the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. He says the Bible states this and that a man changed it. I was baptized by the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit not by Jesus Christ.  Should I get baptized again?

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Q. My question concerns Gen 6: 9. The verse states that Noah was perfect in his generations and walked with God. In verse 18, God tells Noah “thou shalt come into the ark, thou and thy sons, and thy wife, and thy sons’ wives with thee.” What was the lineage of Noah’s wife and the sons’ wives? Were they considered perfect in their generations? Thank you and God bless you and your family. Your web site is a blessing to a lot of people.

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Q. Do you see a correlation between the actions of the US Presidents regarding Israel and the problems the US experiences.  Does this fit Obadiah 1:15 or are the incidents simply coincidental?  I enjoy your web site and have found the information enlightening and helpful to share with scores of others.  I enjoy God’s prophecies and I pray for the coming fulfillment.

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