Q. Re: Rev. 5:6, you wrote in a previous column, “Although John’s description is symbolic, many scholars believe John saw Jesus in physical form still bearing the scars of His crucifixion and that’s the way He looks today.” So, if our Lord still carries the scars of crucifixion, and we are supposed to become like Him, will we carry those scars also? Will his body become perfect at some point? I’ve never heard that mentioned, and can’t find anything to support it after years of Bible study.
Q. Comparing the references to water in John 3:5 and 1 John 5:6: The John 3:5 reference is considered by many (and I agree) to mean physical birth, yet the 1 John 5:6 reference is considered by some to mean baptism. I believe that 1 John was written, in part, to refute false teaching and to stress that Jesus did come in the flesh. Because of that, it seems that there would be consistency in the usage of the word ‘water’ between the two passages with each one referring to physical birth. Can you point out what I’m missing?
Q. I would swear I remember a prohibition against marking your bodies like the pagans do somewhere in the Bible but for the life of me I cant find it. Are you familiar with it?
Q. In Matthew 15:26 and Mark 7:27 the Lord Jesus referred to Jews as “children” and to the Gentiles as “dogs”. In Romans 10:12, Galatians 3:28 and Colossians 3:11 I read “there is no difference?” What brought about the change?
Q. I think we’ve all – at one time or another – been approached by a stranger asking for money because (supposedly) they’re in a desperate situation and need help. You give them some money but walk away wondering if you’ve just been conned. Don’t Christians have more to consider when confronted like this (i.e., what does God expect from me, the parable of the Good Samaritan, entertaining an angel unawares.) I don’t mind helping someone who truly needs help – if I can; I just don’t want to be an easy mark. How do you think a Christian should handle this type of situation?
Q. I know that through the death of our Lord we are made acceptable to God, but how were people in the Old Testament acceptable? There are many great figures in the Bible who made some dreadful mistakes – Jacob, Samson, David, etc. It has always been encouraging to me that God looked with favor upon these people who got things so terribly wrong; however I find it difficult to reconcile the idea that as a righteous God, they should not have been acceptable in His eyes.
I know it can’t be connected with them obeying the ‘law’ because, like the rest of us, they would never have been able to achieve it. David for instance, repented and was forgiven – how was this possible? Was it their faith that made them righteous? Was it possible for them to remain in sin and still be acceptable to God through faith?
Q. Can you tell me what.. or where is third heaven?
Q. Luke 18:19 says “No one is good but One, that is, God.” What I don’t understand is why Jesus says that He isn’t good, and why He uses this word. I would use words such as awesome, perfect, holy, wonderful etc. What is the Bible definition of “good”? In my opinion a lot of things are good.
Q. I have always understood that a generation was 70 years as shown in Psalms 90:10 and Isaiah 23:15. But during my reading of the bible I came across a couple of verses in Genesis 15:13-16. It tells in verse 13 of Abram’s descendants being enslaved for four hundred (400) years and in verse 16 it refers to Abram’s descendants will come back in the fourth (4) generation. I take this to mean that a generation is 100 years. Is my thinking correct?
Q. My question is in regards to the word “bitter” used in Genesis 26:34-35. “When Esau was forty years old, he took Judith the daughter of Beeri the Hittite to be his wife, and Basemath the daughter of Elon the Hittite, and they made life bitter for Isaac and Rebekah.” Why and what was the purpose for Esau and his wives to make life “bitter” for Isaac and Rebekah? And is it good practice when ever reading something in the Old, to find a correlation of it in the New?