Posted February 12th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. Would you say that OSAS is modeled in the Old Testament through God’s relationship with the nation of Israel? The covenant that God made with Abraham in Genesis 15:9-21 was a one sided covenant with God as the only participant demonstrating the “union” side and Israel’s on again off again relationship with God over the years representing the “fellowship” portion. What do you think?
Posted February 6th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. My understanding is that the Jewish calendar is based on a 360 day year. How then, do they keep the Festivals at the same time of year each year? Spring and Fall, etc. Among other problems, they would lose 5 days a year, each year. Every 73 years, or so, they would lose a full year. And the festivals would move around throughout the seasons – Hanukkah in summer, etc. How does that work?
Posted February 6th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. Revelation 11 is a recap of the 1st half of the tribulation but what puzzles me is verse 18. It basically says that this is the time the Lord rewards the prophets and the saints. But didn’t the church get rewarded back in revelation chapters 4 & 5? And not only that but all of verse 18 throws me off a little as far as the timing of the rapture goes. I know Rev 3:10 says God will take us out before the trib starts but I’m a little befuddled at this verse…would you mind clarifying it?
Posted February 4th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. I am confused in regards to the marriage supper of the Lamb in Rev 19:7. Who is the wife spoken of there for it says the wife has made herself ready…is this reference to the church or Israel? Why would the church have to make herself ready, in what respect? Is there more than one wedding in scripture? If Christ to be married to both Israel (Isaiah 54:5) and the church (Ephes 5:25) this would have to be the case. If so, then who is the bride of Christ?
Posted February 2nd, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. For a while now I’ve been pondering “the fullness of the Gentiles”. You have spoken on the differences between believers (the Body of Christ/the Church) as distinct from Jewish people and Gentile people who trust in Christ during the Tribulation. Since there will still be those two groups of people during this time, why do the Gentiles not figure into “the fullness” right through the Tribulation? Would not those Gentiles be counted as well in that “fullness”? And, the Rapture would then have nothing to do with this count?
Posted February 2nd, 2013 in Ikvot ha'Mashiach
A Bible Study by Jack Kelley
(Note: this is an update of a previous study originally posted in 2008)
Hezbollah has said that Israel’s disappearance after their next war is an established fact. Iran’s President has called Israel a dirty microbe and a savage animal that will soon disappear in a flash. The commander in chief of Iran’s army predicts that millions will soon receive the joyous news of Israel’s destruction. Today Israel is on high alert after bombing a Syrian chemical weapons factory outside of Damascus and a weapons convoy heading into Lebanon. Russia is upset by this, and Syria and Iran have both vowed to retaliate, saying Israel’s attack gives them the right to do so.
Posted February 1st, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. Thanks for your great illustration regarding “the fullness of the Gentiles” from Romans 11:25 in which you wrote, “According to my research the phrase “full number” is a nautical term that describes the number of soldiers and sailors necessary to operate a ship under sail. The ship couldn’t sail until they had the full number of crewmen. Once the full number was reached, off they went…” Obviously, God is waiting for that specific number to be reached before He calls us home. My question is what will the purpose of the church be once that number has been reached?
Posted February 1st, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. In Isaiah 19:23-25 it talks of Egypt, Assyria, and Israel worshiping together. In Isaiah 19:25, God says “Blessed be Egypt my people, Assyria my handiwork, and Israel my inheritance.” I understand Israel being God’s inheritance, but what about Egypt and Assyria? I am half Assyrian so I am very interested in what all this means.
Posted January 22nd, 2013 in Bread From Heaven
Praise the LORD. Sing to the LORD a new song, his praise in the assembly of the saints. Let Israel rejoice in their Maker; let the people of Zion be glad in their King. Let them praise his name with dancing and make music to him with tambourine and harp. For the LORD takes delight in his people; he crowns the humble with salvation.
Posted January 17th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. I have a question about Exodus 4:22-23: Then say to Pharoah, ‘This is what the Lord says: Israel is my firstborn son, and I told you, “Let my son go, so he may worship me.” But you refused to let him go; so I will kill your firstborn son.’ “ This verse says that Israel was God’s firstborn son. Does this differ from the claim Jesus made in John 3:16? “For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.” God only has one son so how could Israel be his firstborn son?
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