Do you think that Isaiah 17 will be fulfilled at the same time as the Battle of Ezekiel 38-39?
Q. I would like to know if there is any evidence of a general time frame for the Isaiah 17 prophecy to be fulfilled? I see many Bible teachers mentioning that it could be fulfilled pretty soon given the current situation in Syria. Do you think there’s any merit to this view that the Bible might not be totally clear on when the prophecy will be fulfilled?
I’ve always struggled with the concept of Hell. I can understand the concept that if you reject God, you reject everything that defines his Character: Faith, Hope and Love and all he created. However, I can’t understand why God appears to go out of his way to make Hell painful.
1st question, ” How long of time was it between the taking of Enoch to Heaven and the time of the Flood of Noah? ”
2nd question, ” Do you see that most of the Second Coming Prophecy’s are mostly starting and being fulfilled after 1948 or are they mostly starting and being fulfilled after 1967? ”
Will this new Immigration Law play a role in end-times if passed?
My question pertains to Ezekiel 12:27-28. I’m specifically wondering about the part of verse 28 that says, “None of My words will be delayed any longer. Whatever word I speak will be performed”. If the entire book of Ezekiel was meant to be fulfilled in the generation of Ezekiel himself, what fulfillment was there for 38-39, the temple and the kingdom?
Is the prophecy of the dry bones (Ezekiel 36:35-37) specifically about Israel, or does it also pertain to the church? How is this linked if at all??? I really want to know the truth.
And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew. (Genesis 4:25) What is the application for today, a foreshadow of the Gentile Church?
Gen 1:26: Let us make man in our image…
How do you explain this? Is it referring to the trinity? I’m seeing it used to justify someone’s view that God is in a ‘crew’ of gods.
I’m a graduate student who has been told in a roundabout way that my student loans for undergrad and grad school are wrong (even sinful) because we are not supposed to owe any man anything. Is this true? This has me very worried!