Q. Our small group is studying Matthew. When we got to Matthew 9:16-17, a lengthy discussion broke out, as to the meaning, and we couldn’t come to an agreement. Please give me your understanding of these two verses.
Q. I’ve read and heard many times… “I am the same yesterday, today and tomorrow.” Recently though I’ve been digging into Old Testament and came across Nahum and then Habakkuk. It’s hard to understand the quote noted above about “I am the same…” and apply that to some of the Old Testament books as they speak of a God who is unforgiving and full of wrath. Can you please shed some light there for me? For a younger Christian, it appears we read about 2 completely different versions of God from the Old to the New Testaments. I realize that’s not the case as God doesn’t contradict Himself so I’m just working to understand.
Q. I have always wondered what is the point of this parable in Luke 5:36-39. Would you please explain?
Q. I have been studying Romans 7 and understand it to mean that “The LAW” was the wife of man, and until it died we were bound by it. Now that it is dead we are able to become brides of Christ and if we try to live in both we are in a form of spiritual adultery. I have two parts to my inquiry;
1. Am i correctly understanding this teaching?
2. Are we actually bound until death to our first spouse, and committing adultery by remarrying?
Q. Re: Why The Mystery?. Concerning Israel’s acceptance of the Messiah, I’m trying to understand what “their acceptance” really means. My initial thought was that if they hadn’t killed Him, then that would have been their acceptance of Jesus as the Messiah. But after reading “Why the Mystery” it reminded me that He had to die, to fulfill the Scriptures. In “Why the Mystery” you said, “Had they accepted the Lord’s death as the final sacrifice for their sins there would have been no Church” So, what would have constituted their “acceptance”?
Q. Re: Explaining Hebrews 8:11. I am confused about your answer. It appears to cast this verse as if it is addressed to the church today, yet the preceding verses specifically the New Covenant will be with the House of Israel and the House of Judah (vs.8). Verse 10 stipulates their “New Covenant” will be after “those days”. I understand “those days” to be referring to those days where Israel and Judah have completed the 70th week of Daniel chap. 9. For the entire 70 weeks will be under the Old Covenant. This seems to place Heb. 8: 8-12 in the future.
Q. Re: Jeremiah 31:31-34. Is there a difference between the New Covenant for the Church and the New Covenant for Israel?
Q. Thank you for your wonderful web site, I have learned so much. It’s very exciting for me to be able to go to gracethrufaith and learn everyday. I am not an evangelist. It just isn’t a gift I have. I love to talk about the grace of Jesus with my friends and fellow believers but when it comes to evangelizing to others I seem to fall short. Would you please explain Hebrews 8:11 in the context of the new covenant God has made for us?
Q. I am reading Hebrews and I saw the order of Melchizedek ending I think two verses, so I looked it up to understand what that is I am still a bit confused though could you kindly explain to me what exactly is the order of Melchizedek and why reference was made to it in Hebrews ?
Q. I am ever so thankful for your site – read it every day. I have a question regarding the new covenant – in Jeremiah 31:31-34 – we see the Lord saying that He will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and Judah – it is my understanding that we are talking here prophetically of the covenant with the Church – if so – how do we understand that to be the church from that portion of scripture when it specifically says the house of Israel and Judah?