Q. I want to state that I am a pre-trib believer, that I have studied Thessalonians, looked at Rev. 4:10, am very aware of mid-trib, post-trib, pre-mill.,a-mill,post-mill. and stick with the golden rule of Bible interpretation.
My question is: WHEN did Rev.4:1 come into view as a Rapture point (yes, I am aware of the early church fathers and their belief in the Rapture, i.e Pseudo-Ephraim of Syria also), when did this particular verse become a Rapture point? (yes, I know that the word rapture is not in the modern translations comes from the Latin Vulgate).