Q. Rev. 20:3 states that Satan will be released for “a little while” after a Christ has reigned for a thousand years. Although we will have glorified bodies by that time, are there any corroborating scriptures that may indicate how long that will be? If not, would you have an educated guess to offer?
Q. In my recent study of false prophets in 2 Peter 2:10 and Jude 8 the term glorious ones (ESV) or celestial beings (NIV) was used to describe that which the false prophets blaspheme but angels dare not. Who are these glorious ones? The Greek word for glorious ones and how it’s used in other verses it puzzling.
Q. Regarding the reason Job was afflicted by Satan in Chapters 1 and 2. You’ve made the point many times that is was due to the sin of self-righteousness, he was out of fellowship with God and thus Satan was allowed to afflict him. This is diametrically opposed to what we read in the Word of God. In Job 1:8 God says to Satan “Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil?”, no condemnation here. Satan’s only response was not to point out any sin, but to say (v. 9-11) “Doth Job fear God for nought? Hast not thou made an hedge about him, and about his house, and about all that he hath on every side? thou hast blessed the work of his hands, and his substance is increased in the land. But put forth thine hand now, and touch all that he hath, and he will curse thee to thy face.”
We know that Job was not without sin but in the eyes of God he was perfect and we are told this twice. So we must conclude that Job was afflicted by Satan only because God allowed it to happen to prove to Satan how a believer can live a life pleasing to God no matter of one’s circumstances in life.
Q. Since the devil knows the Bible, does he know what the rapture means and could he be trying to rush it, slow it, or is he not concerned?
Q. If a person is saved once and for all time why does Satan even bother tempting them to sin? Why would he waste his time on something he can’t change?
Q. Re: Genesis 3: 15 “And I will put enmity Between you and the woman, And between your seed and her Seed; He shall bruise your head, And you shall bruise His heel.”
Could this be referring to the anti-Christ and Jesus? Could this mean that the anti-Christ will actually be the “seed” of Satan? That Satan will impregnate a human woman (as the evil angels did in Noah’s time) so that his “seed” will rise up to be the imitation of Christ, when he appears on the scene soon?
Q. In regards to Vladimir Putin’s recent presidential victory and it’s relevance to Ezekiel 38. From one of your audio studies you speculated that Gog is a supernatural figure. From your studies it was conveyed Daniel 10:12-13 seems to imply that every earthly kingdom and/or government is influenced by a spiritual power. Therefore if Gog is not human then could President Putin be manipulated by this supernatural being?
Q. I have a question that I cannot seem to find an answer to and I hope you can help. Is there any scripture or inference in scripture that Lucifer may have been the first of the angelic beings created? Any light you can shed on this would be helpful.
Q. In James (1:14) we read that “But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away by his own lust, and enticed.” which implies that we are ostensibly our own worst enemy. Meaning that the reason we sin is solely because of our own sinful nature and not because of some outside influence (the devil). However, in 1 Peter (5:8) we read “your adversary the devil, as a roaring lion, walketh about, seeking whom he may devour” and again in 1 John (4:4) we read “greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.” These two scriptures would imply that temptation by the devil does exist and that (at least some of) our sin IS due to the devil.