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	<title>GraceThruFaith &#187; The Holy Spirit</title>
	<atom:link href="http://gracethrufaith.com/tag/the-holy-spirit/feed/" rel="self" type="application/rss+xml" />
	<link>http://gracethrufaith.com</link>
	<description>Inspired Bible Studies by Jack Kelley</description>
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		<title>Can The Holy Spirit Be Withdrawn?</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/can-the-holy-spirit-be-withdrawn/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/can-the-holy-spirit-be-withdrawn/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Sat, 13 Mar 2010 00:00:39 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Interpreting Verses]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=16280</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q.  I wonder if you could clear up some confusion for me about 2Thess.2:6-8. I think most scholars believe the restrainer mentioned is the Holy Spirit.  Some say this means he will vacate the scene, so to speak, which also means the church must go with him. My question is about the vacating the [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q. </strong> I wonder if you could clear up some confusion for me about 2Thess.2:6-8. I think most scholars believe the restrainer mentioned is the Holy Spirit.  Some say this means he will vacate the scene, so to speak, which also means the church must go with him. My question is about the vacating the scene aspect.  Isn&#8217;t the Holy Spirit omnipresent, which makes it impossible for him to vacate the scene?</p>
<p><span id="more-16280"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> The common understanding is that during the Church age the Holy Spirit is sealed within believers as a guarantee of our inheritance (<strong>Epes. 1:13-14</strong>). If that&#8217;s not the case, and He&#8217;s really everywhere all the time then that wouldn&#8217;t be much of a guarantee would it? Also, there&#8217;s precedent for the withdrawal of the Holy Spirit from Earth before a judgment.  It appears to have happened before the Great flood as well. (<strong>Genesis 6:3</strong>)</p>
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		<item>
		<title>Was Jesus Limited While On Earth?</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/was-jesus-limited-while-on-earth/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/was-jesus-limited-while-on-earth/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Fri, 12 Mar 2010 00:00:27 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Theology]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=16263</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. I have a question about Our Lord when He was on earth. I have heard it said that His knowledge or power was limited on earth according to God the Father&#8217;s discretion. That is why Jesus frequently prayed to the Father or the scriptures say, &#8220;Not even the Son of Man knows&#8221; about a [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> I have a question about Our Lord when He was on earth. I have heard it said that His knowledge or power was limited on earth according to God the Father&#8217;s discretion. That is why Jesus frequently prayed to the Father or the scriptures say, &#8220;Not even the Son of Man knows&#8221; about a particular thing. Do you agree with this?</p>
<p><span id="more-16263"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> I believe when Jesus agreed to become a man, He voluntarily set aside His Godly powers and limited Himself the the powers available to mankind.  This is why He attributed His ability to perform miracles to the Holy Spirit (<strong>Matt. 12:28</strong>), was in daily prayer with the Father, claimed not to know certain things (<strong>Matt. 24:36</strong>), and promised us we could do even greater things than he had done (<strong>John 14:12</strong>).</p>
<p>There are at least 3 reasons why we know this is true.  First, God can&#8217;t be tempted (<strong>James 1:13</strong>), but Jesus was tempted in every way and yet was without sin.  (<strong>Hebr. 4:15</strong>)  Second, according to the Law of Redemption He had to become a man to redeem what Adam had lost (<strong>Lev. 25:25</strong>) and save us, and third He had to become a man so He could be put to death.  It&#8217;s impossible to kill God.</p>
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		<title>Being Filled With The Holy Spirit</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/being-filled-with-the-holy-spirit/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/being-filled-with-the-holy-spirit/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Mon, 08 Mar 2010 00:00:48 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Spiritual Gifts]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=16169</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. My question regards being filled with The Holy Spirit. I do not speak in tongues nor do I have a prayer language, although I have prayed and prayed to receive such. However, I feel God with me all the time. He answers my prayers ALL THE TIME. I know without a doubt that I [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> My question regards being filled with The Holy Spirit. I do not speak in tongues nor do I have a prayer language, although I have prayed and prayed to receive such. However, I feel God with me all the time. He answers my prayers ALL THE TIME. I know without a doubt that I am HIS and He is my Lord, King and Savior (and that should be enough right?) But is there anything in scriptures (other than the gift of tongues) that is evidence that The Holy Spirit is residing in a person?  I would like to reference a scripture when talking to my daughters about this.</p>
<p><span id="more-16169"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> The Greek word translated fill is used in a variety of ways in the Bible. For instance it can mean to physically fill something like a jar or the hold of a ship.  Or it can mean to fill a predetermined span of time, as in <strong>Luke 1:57</strong> referring to Elizabeth having reached the time for John&#8217;s birth.</p>
<p>It&#8217;s used most often to refer to a person&#8217;s dominant feeling at a given point of time.  In <strong>Luke 4:28</strong> people were filled with wrath. They were filled with fear in <strong>Luke 5:26</strong>, with madness in <strong>Luke 6:11</strong>, with wonder in <strong>Acts 3:10</strong>, indignation in <strong>Acts 5:17</strong>, envy in <strong>Acts 13:45</strong>, confusion in <strong>Acts 19:29</strong>, etc.</p>
<p>The point is the same Greek word is used every time, so being filled is not something that&#8217;s unique to the Holy Spirit.  He was sealed within us when we first believed,  so we have the potential to be filled with Him just as we have the potential to be filled with love, wonder, awe etc. Your own experiences demonstrate this. This doesn&#8217;t mean the Holy Spirit is just another emotion, but that for a believer the potential to be filled with the Holy Spirit is similar to the potential to be filled with love. It doesn&#8217;t require a special ritual or ceremony, it just happens. Reviewing the 8 instances of people being filled with the Holy Spirit in the New Testament will confirm this.</p>
<p>In <strong>1 Cor. 12:7-11</strong> Paul explained that the Holy Spirit manifests Himself in every believer through certain gifts He gives us.  We don&#8217;t choose these gifts, He does, and He does so for the common good.  You didn&#8217;t mention whether you&#8217;ve identified the gifts He&#8217;s given you, only that you&#8217;ve prayed for certain ones.  Be advised that the gift of tongues was never intended as evidence of the Holy Spirit residing in a believer.  The Holy Spirit automatically resides in every believer.  If you want proof that the Holy Spirit resides within you,  pray that the Lord would help you discover the gifts He&#8217;s selected for you so you can make the contribution to the Body of Christ He intends for you to make.</p>
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		<title>An Evil Spirit From God?</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/an-evil-spirit-from-god/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/an-evil-spirit-from-god/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Thu, 04 Mar 2010 00:00:37 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Old Testament]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=16122</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. I am hoping you&#8217;ll be able to help me understand 1 Samuel 16 v 14.  I came across it recently and it has really stumped me.  It says, &#8220;then the spirit of the Lord departed from Saul and a distressing spirit from the Lord troubled him&#8221;.  Do you know what it means when it [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> I am hoping you&#8217;ll be able to help me understand 1 Samuel 16 v 14.  I came across it recently and it has really stumped me.  It says, &#8220;then the spirit of the Lord departed from Saul and a distressing spirit from the Lord troubled him&#8221;.  Do you know what it means when it says &#8216;a distressing spirit from the Lord&#8217;? It seems odd as in the new testament James says that only good and perfect gifts are from above. Are you able to shed any light on this for me at all?</p>
<p><span id="more-16122"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> The Hebrew word translated distressing in your Bible means evil.  <strong>James 1:17</strong> doesn&#8217;t say &#8220;only good and perfect gifts are from above&#8221;, it says &#8220;every good and perfect gift is from above&#8221;.  There&#8217;s a big difference.</p>
<p>As for Saul, he had disobeyed the Lord and was being disciplined. The Lord had removed the Holy Spirit from Saul and sent an evil spirit to torment him.  He did this by granting Satan access to Saul.</p>
<p>It&#8217;s important to remember that the Holy Spirit is sealed within us and can&#8217;t be removed (<strong>Ephes 1:13-14</strong>).  That wasn&#8217;t true in Saul&#8217;s time, and it will no longer be true after the rapture. It&#8217;s a special blessing given only to the Church.</p>
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		<title>Laying On Of Hands</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/laying-on-of-hands/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/laying-on-of-hands/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Thu, 25 Feb 2010 00:00:55 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Spiritual Gifts]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=15974</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. I have a question regarding the &#8220;Laying on of Hands&#8221;.  Is it just symbolic or can it impart healing, spiritual gifts or an infilling with the spirit? Also do you think that a &#8221; transferable anointing&#8221; between one person and another is Biblical?

A. In Biblical times the laying on of hands was done as [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> I have a question regarding the &#8220;Laying on of Hands&#8221;.  Is it just symbolic or can it impart healing, spiritual gifts or an infilling with the spirit? Also do you think that a &#8221; transferable anointing&#8221; between one person and another is Biblical?</p>
<p><span id="more-15974"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> In Biblical times the laying on of hands was done as a sign of acceptance or approval, or to commission someone into ministry (<strong>1 Tim 4:14</strong>).  But it was not done to convey an anointing or cause someone to faint, nor was it to be done casually (<strong>1 Tim 5:22</strong>).  We see examples in Acts of the Holy Spirit coming on people spontaneously (<strong>Acts 2</strong>) through preaching (<strong>Acts 10:44</strong>) and through laying on of hands (<strong>Acts 19:6</strong>) Healing and other miracles were often performed from a distance as well.</p>
<p>There&#8217;s no Biblical basis for a transferable anointing.  One person can not &#8220;give&#8221; the Holy Spirit&#8217;s power to another, who conveys these things upon believers just as He determines, for the common good. (<strong>1 Cor. 12:7-11</strong>)</p>
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		<title>Is Baptism Required To Receive The Holy Spirit?</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/is-baptism-required-to-receive-the-holy-spirit/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/is-baptism-required-to-receive-the-holy-spirit/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Mon, 15 Feb 2010 00:00:39 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Christian Life]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Salvation]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=15740</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. I have been attending a great  bible teaching church and in the last few month have come to realize that the pastor believes that we don&#8217;t receive the Holy Spirit until we are baptized.  We have spoken at length and agree that when you believe on Jesus as your Savior you are saved and [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Q. I have been attending a great  bible teaching church and in the last few month have come to realize that the pastor believes that we don&#8217;t receive the Holy Spirit until we are baptized.  We have spoken at length and agree that when you believe on Jesus as your Savior you are saved and will spend eternity with him and the father.  He says that Ephesians 1:13-14  is saying we are sealed (as in marked) for our future inheritance, but the spirit doesn&#8217;t dwell and live within us until we get baptized and that is when we receive the promise of the Father.  He says the Lord&#8217;s own baptism is our example of this and in Acts 2:38 Peter placed baptism before receiving the Holy Spirit.</p>
<p><span id="more-15740"></span>I think that baptism is very important and we should do it because it is commanded and it is a public display of our choice to be a follower of Christ, but I disagree with my pastor on this issue.  I have studied at length and hoped you might help?</p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> I disagree with your pastor&#8217;s interpretation on several counts.  There&#8217;s no reason to believe Jesus was only prophesying about the Holy Spirit in <strong>John 20:22</strong>.   It&#8217;s reasonable to assume that having first been followers of John, several of the Lord&#8217;s disciples had been baptized.  But there&#8217;s nothing in the Biblical record indicating that they all were, and even those who were did not receive the Holy Spirit at the time.  Neither did a baptism precede either the event in the Upper Room or the Day of Pentecost.   A literal reading of <strong>Ephesians 1:13-14</strong> clearly says the Holy Spirit was sealed within us at the moment of belief.  Paul repeated this promise in <strong>2 Cor. 1:21-22</strong> and <strong>2 Cor. 5:5</strong> without mentioning baptism.  Saying he thought it would be redundant to mention baptism is putting words in his mouth.</p>
<p>It&#8217;s important to remember that in <strong>Acts 2</strong> Peter was speaking in the Temple to a Jewish audience who had a different understanding of baptism than we do.  They had used baptism (they called it a Mikvah) for centuries as a rite of purification before the Sabbath or a marriage or some other important undertaking.  The Church uses baptism as a public declaration of having been born again.  So for them it preceded an important change, while for us it follows it.</p>
<p>Also, to say that Jesus did not possess the Holy Spirit before His baptism is tantamount to denying His deity from birth.  It would mean that before the baptism He was just an ordinary man.  Remember John, who had known Jesus all His life, questioned His need for one.  I believe He was being obedient to the Law by taking a mikvah at the outset of His ministry. The sign of the Holy Spirit descending upon Him was to show He was being equipped for ministry and to give an indication of His Father&#8217;s pleasure (<strong>Matt. 3:13-17</strong>).</p>
<p>The Holy Spirit dwells within us from the moment of belief to guide and direct us.  But once in a while, He may come upon us in power to equip us for a special task or challenge.  This is what happened with Jesus, it&#8217;s what happened with the disciples, and it&#8217;s what happens with us.</p>
<p>You and your pastor agree that this is not a salvation issue. Personally, I think if this is all you can find to disagree about, you should consider yourself blessed.</p>
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		<title>When Did The Disciples Receive The Holy Spirit?</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/when-did-the-disciples-receive-the-holy-spirit/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/when-did-the-disciples-receive-the-holy-spirit/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Tue, 09 Feb 2010 00:00:27 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Interpreting Verses]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[New Testament]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=15611</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. What is going on in John 20 when Jesus breathed on the disciples and told them to receive the Holy Spirit?  Prior to this event, Jesus told them He could not send the Holy Spirit to them until after He returned to His Father. Then after this event He told them to wait in [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> What is going on in John 20 when Jesus breathed on the disciples and told them to receive the Holy Spirit?  Prior to this event, Jesus told them He could not send the Holy Spirit to them until after He returned to His Father. Then after this event He told them to wait in Jerusalem for the arrival of the Holy Spirit.  So what happened in John 20, how do we explain this?</p>
<p><span id="more-15611"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> In <strong>John 20:17</strong>, on Resurrection morning, Jesus had Mary go and tell the disciples He was returning to the Father.  That night, He appeared to them in the Upper Room and invested them with the Holy Spirit. (<strong>John 20:22</strong>) During the day He had been to Heaven and returned. I believe He was sprinkling His blood on the altar in Heaven in His final act of atonement as our High Priest (<strong>Hebr. 9:11-12</strong>) . During the next 40 days He taught them about God&#8217;s Kingdom. Then, as He was leaving Earth,  He told them to wait in Jerusalem until the Holy Spirit came upon them in power. (<strong>Acts 1:8</strong>)  This was a special manifestation of the Holy Spirit that resulted in the birth of the Church, but  the Holy Spirit had dwelt within them since the night of the Resurrection.</p>
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		<title>Using Capitals</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/using-capitals/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/using-capitals/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Fri, 05 Feb 2010 00:00:12 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Interpreting Verses]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[New Testament]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=15541</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. I have a question in regard to 2 Thes. 2:7.  My question is: “Why is ‘he’ not capitalized in the verse?” If it is referring to God as the one who restrains, and the Holy Spirit as the one who is taken out of the way, why do you think the words referencing ‘he’ [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> I have a question in regard to 2 Thes. 2:7.  My question is: “Why is ‘he’ not capitalized in the verse?” If it is referring to God as the one who restrains, and the Holy Spirit as the one who is taken out of the way, why do you think the words referencing ‘he’ are not in upper case?</p>
<p><span id="more-15541"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> For the most part decisions on capitalizing words are made by the translators and are often not specified in the original language. Different translations will vary on this.  For instance, the NIV does not normally capitalize pronouns even when they refer to God. The Amplified Bible doesn&#8217;t use caps in the text of <strong>2 Thes. 2:7</strong> but does in its foot note on the verse.  The general lack of capitals in translations of this verse may be due to the fact that many theologians still believe the verse is referring to the principles of law and government as embodied in the Roman Empire or its successors.</p>
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		<title>The Holy Spirit After The Rapture</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/the-holy-spirit-after-the-rapture-2/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/the-holy-spirit-after-the-rapture-2/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Sat, 12 Dec 2009 00:00:24 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Rapture]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=14483</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. I have recently been studying Revelation in preparing to teach a teen Sunday school class, and thus far what I have gleaned from your answers that I still have a question about from what I have read in the Word is the following:
I understand that the Scripture says that all of Israel that survives [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> I have recently been studying Revelation in preparing to teach a teen Sunday school class, and thus far what I have gleaned from your answers that I still have a question about from what I have read in the Word is the following:</p>
<p>I understand that the Scripture says that all of Israel that survives the Trib. will be saved thanks to the preaching of the sealed 144,000, but is there Biblical proof that gentiles will be saved after the Rapture of the church?  If it is true that the Holy Spirit will be removed from the earth at the Rapture, how could more Gentiles be saved? And where does the Bible say that Gentiles will be saved?</p>
<p><span id="more-14483"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> Let&#8217;s clarify a few things to make sure we&#8217;re on the same page. When the Bible says that all Israel will be saved (<strong>Romans 11:26</strong>), it doesn&#8217;t necessarily mean every Jewish person. More likely it means that there will be representatives from every tribe in the new Kingdom.</p>
<p>Indications that Gentiles will be saved after the Rapture can be found in the Sheep and Goat judgment, which is specifically a judgment of Gentiles immediately following the 2nd Coming (<strong>Matt. 25:31-46</strong>).  Some are welcomed into the Kingdom, which means they&#8217;re saved, while others are banished from the planet, which means they&#8217;re not.</p>
<p>After the rapture, the Holy Spirit will no longer be needed as a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance, since we will have received it.  At that time, the Holy Spirit will revert to a ministry more like His role in the Old Testament, being in the world but not sealed within believers, and no longer restraining the power of evil.  Otherwise no one, Jew or Gentile, could be saved after the Rapture.</p>
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		<title>Was King Saul Saved?</title>
		<link>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/was-king-saul-saved/</link>
		<comments>http://gracethrufaith.com/ask-a-bible-teacher/was-king-saul-saved/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Wed, 04 Nov 2009 00:00:26 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Ask a Bible Teacher]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Old Testament]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Salvation]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[The Holy Spirit]]></category>

		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://gracethrufaith.com/?p=13675</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Q. My Bible study on Sunday night the question came up about King Saul&#8217;s salvation. One lady thought there was a verse in the Psalms that said he was saved. The leader of the study thought he was not saved. I could not find the verse. Can you shed any light on this?

A. According to [...]]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p><strong>Q.</strong> My Bible study on Sunday night the question came up about King Saul&#8217;s salvation. One lady thought there was a verse in the Psalms that said he was saved. The leader of the study thought he was not saved. I could not find the verse. Can you shed any light on this?</p>
<p><span id="more-13675"></span></p>
<p><strong>A.</strong> According to <strong>1 Samuel 16:14</strong> the Spirit of the Lord departed from Saul, most likely because of his disobedience. I take this to mean that if he had been saved, he lost his salvation at that time.  Remember, the Holy Spirit was not sealed within believers before the Church Age, nor will He be afterward.  It&#8217;s a promise given exclusively to the Church.  There is no mention of Saul in the Psalms.</p>
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