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In John 17, Judas is referred to as the son of perdition. In 2 Thess, the Antichrist is referred to as the son of perdition. Is there a connection here?

How did you come to conclude that the New Jerusalem appears at the beginning of the millennium? When I read Rev. 20-21, it seems like the order of things are as follows: 2nd coming of Christ, Satan is bound, millennium period, Satan is released/defeated, old heaven and earth pass away (Rev. 20:11), Great White throne judgment, eternity begins with a new heaven and earth, New Jerusalem descends, “it is done” (Rev. 21:6). Am I misunderstanding something?

I came across a scripture tonight and wondered what you make of it. Jeremiah 48:47 says “And I will bring back the captivity of Moab in the last days”. The people of Moab were somewhere in the vicinity of Jordan and were relatives of the Hebrews. Do you suppose that, like Israel, the rebirth of Moab would be a sign of the last days? Who would Moab be today? As far as I know there are no such people now. What do you think this means?

Re: The article “Where is Paradise?” You say at the very end: “Though she no longer experiences any of the effects of her disease, and although she misses her children….” Isn’t it true that once in heaven, we will no longer “miss” anyone? Because missing them would cause us pain and there is no pain in heaven.

I ask this because my brother recently converted to Judaism and my mother and I are convinced he will not go in the Rapture if it happens anytime soon because of his disbelief in Jesus. My mom was crying one day and asking what that meant for us together as a family in heaven…would we “miss” him and I said I thought No, we would not. That we probably wouldn’t even remember him, because if we did, it would cause pain and there would be no pain in heaven. What are your thoughts on this?

What are the Biblical grounds for Divorce? If a man or woman says, “I have been married 5 years and I am tired of constantly giving and receiving nothing in return. I want a Divorce.” Biblically, I understand this as illegal grounds to Divorce. If Scripture is very narrow on why people can Divorce, then is it possible that we as a Culture have weakened the whole concept of Marriage to begin with?

In my human mind I hear complaints that sound pretty legit, but from Gods Perspective seem to fall short as actually being able to Divorce someone. Maybe most of us in America should not even marry if we are just going to trade our Spouse in a few years later. I Need Scriptural help on this subject. My Grandmother told me that back in the 1920’s that if a couple divorced, most neighbors would not even speak to such people. Somehow, something has gotten watered down. Thanks, I love this Website!

Regarding the question: Are all Children Saved:

What if an unborn child , aborted fetus and little children that have not reached the age of accountability, what if their “parents” are not saved or Satanists or New Agers (any unbelievers)… I assume they will be saved too…

Do we have scripture for this or must one parent at least be saved?

I am a Christian and my husband is Muslim. We’ve been married almost 6 years now. We’ve both always wanted children, but have been avoiding it for the obvious reasons of how they will be raised morally and religiously. Neither of us want to budge either way. What does the Bible say about marriage issues such as this?

Concerning an earlier question of the fate of an unsaved soul. Jesus seems to answer this question with the parable of the rich man and Lazarus. The rich man at death was sent to suffer the flames, while Lazarus went to heaven and was comforted. The rich man calls out to God to allow Lazarus to dip his finger in the water and place it on his (the rich man’s) tongue as he his burning alive and can’t stand it.

Is the place the rich man is sent Hell and if so, is there any reference to the place of judgment before the rich man is sent to the flames? Thank you for this website.

Is it true that the Tribulation is referred to as a Shevua (One Week) in Hebrew meaning Sabattical Cycle? If so,how can we tell where a Sabattical Cycle Begins and Ends?

To quote from your recent Revelation study; This Temple (The one the Jews will build for use in the tribulation) will be the source of the living water that begins flowing on the day the Lord returns (Zech 14:8). After a cleansing and re-dedication similar to the one memorialized in the Feast of Hanukkah, it will be used during the Millennium. It’s purpose will be to recall the Lord’s work at the cross and provide the perspective for children born during the Kingdom Age to choose salvation. Acts 15:14-16 confirms that after the Lord has chosen a people from among the gentiles for Himself (the church) He will return and re-build David’s fallen Tabernacle (the Temple). This is the Third Temple, so vividly described in Ezekiel 40-48.

So reads one paragraph from your recent newsletter but there seems to be some discrepancy here, if the temple built by the Jews is to be (used during the millennium) what is the purpose of Jesus building the temple which you call “The third” ? [Surely the one Jesus builds is the fourth!] Where does the bible say when it will be destroyed so the final one can be built?