I understand how we count years since our Lord’s death- EG, 1248ad, 1249ad, 1250ad, etc. How did we get the the “count-down” years before Christ was born? EG, 1250bc, 1249bc, 1248bc, etc? How was it that the ancients “knew” to count time downward to the promised, prophesied event of the coming Messiah?
I guess my question is, what was the starting point and how is it man knew to count downward? Very perplexing!
Are Matthew 22:34-40 and Luke 10:25-37 the same story told from different perspectives or two separate stories? Jesus goes on with the Good Samaritan parable in Luke but, the story ends with the greatest commandment in Matthew. It appears the characters are the same.
Thank you for taking the time answer our questions. I was reading Luke 11:29-30. It is the passage where the crowds asked Jesus for a sign, but answering them, Jesus said that no sign would be given them except the sign of Jonah. I’m a little baffled as to why Jesus would phrase it this way since He’d been doing miracles left and right all this time. Weren’t those signs as well?
Thank you so much for your wisdom and insight into the Bible. In one of your articles I remember you saying that trib believers would have different eternal rewards than the Church. I think this was from the letters to the seven churches in Revelation, but I think I see it wrong.
It said that the church in Philadelphia would be made into a pillar in the temple of God, never leaving it and always being a servant there while those in the church in Laodicea would be seated on the right of God. I am most confused by this because the impression I got was that those roles would be reversed, unless all believers’ rewards are the same.