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I recently had a discussion with my wife about how my “works” will be rewarded in heaven. We are both born again Christians and believe faith in Christ is the only way into heaven. Since my wife and I are one flesh, will God offer His reward as a package deal?

Why did Jesus fold the linen burial cloth after His resurrection? I never noticed this.

The Gospel of John (20:7) tells us that the napkin, which was placed over the face of Jesus, was not just thrown aside like the grave clothes, but was neatly folded and placed where Jesus had lain.

I read an account that says when the master of a house got up from the dinner table, if he just discarded his napkin it meant he was finished and the servants could begin cleaning up, but if he folded his napkin it meant he was coming back to the table.

This account says that by folding His burial cloth Jesus was saying He was coming back. It this true?

My son has encountered a group of very godly young people who have been actively challenging him to follow God with his whole being. They teach that you must be saved only through the sacrifice of Jesus, however,they have just told him they do not believe that Jesus was God, but was a sinless man who lived a perfect life. They do not, therefore, believe in the Trinity.

When my son asked the leadership “what benefit do you gain by believing that Jesus wasn’t God” they laughed and said more than you can believe.

My questions: Are these people saved? What should be the response to them?

My wife and I have greatly appreciated your encouraging articles and answers. May our Lord bless you each day in your ministry.

Just some thoughts about your answer regarding the KJV’s use of Easter in Acts 12:4. My understanding is that the Passover occurred before the feast of unleavened bread,so that the word was translated in that instance only with reference to the pagan festival that Herod was still waiting for to finish.

I was discussing the matter of Ishtar vs Resurrection Sunday with a pastor, and he suggested I stop worrying about something that God isn’t concerned with, and he cited Romans 14: 5-10. Does this passage apply to my concern? I covet your counsel.

My question is this, God told Moses that prior to him, nobody knew God by His Name, YHWH, which I understand to be rendered “LORD” throughout the Bible. However, when you read earlier in the book of Genesis, the word “LORD” continues to appear. I could reconcile this if it were used only during the narrative portions of the text, but it is used in the quotes of people throughout the book, both gentile and Jew. Am I taking it too literally when I understand God to have said that Moses was the first person to know Him as YHWH?

I’ve seen an article on several sites I visit claiming the crucifixion took place on a Wednesday and therefore Jesus actually came out of the grave around sunset on Saturday. We only celebrate it on Sunday morning because no one knew about it until then. Have you seen this?

I’m confused about the law and which laws apply to us as Christians. In an answer to a previously asked question about the status of the law you answered that every detail of the law remains in force but that His death protects believers from the consequences of violating it.

I understand Jesus said he didn’t come to abolish the law but to fulfill it, but was he talking about all 613 laws or just the ten commandments or what? If all laws are still in force then am I sinning when I eat bacon or anything else that is not Kosher (Leviticus 11)? And why didn’t Acts 15 include that gentiles are to follow all 613 laws

I’m just really confused because I was taught that the majority of these old laws are no longer valid but wasn’t told why or when they stopped. Let me clarify that I am not trying to follow the law to attain righteousness or salvation but for an unbroken fellowship with God. Can you help me understand this matter? Are we still to follow all 613 laws and if not which ones went away and when?

I have a question regarding the Nephilim. I have been reading about Nephilim lately and I wonder why you feel so strongly that these were a byproduct of fallen angels and humans? I think if you better examine the grammar, you may come to a different conclusion. I don’t know what to think.

I found this article (a composite from several well known theologians) that contradicts your viewpoint, and I just wonder if you have considered this interpretation.

I was reading a response to a question another reader had submitted. It was talking about Noah’s time. I got to thinking-if the law wasn’t given to Moses until 1000+ years later, how did Noah understand the concept of clean and unclean? I cant find any scripture that refers to it, so I was wondering how Noah knew.