My question is about the passage in Matthew 2:15 that stated that when Joseph took Mary and Jesus out of Egypt after Herod died it was a fulfillment of the prophecy in Hosea 11:1. However, it seems like that is really out of context. Was that recognized prior to the birth of Christ as a Messianic Prophecy? How was that a fulfillment of prophecy?
Hosea 11:1 says “When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son.”
Some Biblical writers interpreted Scripture in ways you and I would never consider. But we have to remember that they were doing this at the Holy Spirit’s prompting and so it can’t really be a violation of context.
There is also a list of ways in which the life of the Messiah parallels that of the Nation Israel. For example, both were supernaturally born, both were rejected, both were put to death and both were resurrected. I believe Matthew was using this comparison to justify the use of Hosea 11:1 which is clearly talking of Israel.
As far as I know Hosea 11:1 was never considered to be a messianic passage until Matthew made it so.