In Genesis 15 – why did Abraham do the following:
15:10 but the birds divided he not. 15:11 And when the fowls came down upon the carcases, Abram drove them away. 15:12 And when the sun was going down, a deep sleep fell upon Abram; and, lo, an horror of great darkness fell upon him. 15:13 And he said unto Abram, Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land that is not theirs, and shall serve them; and they shall afflict them four hundred years.
Why did all these happen?
Does God know the intentions of my thoughts, meaning does he know where they originated from? I guess a better question is can I know? I get some very very terrible thoughts that come into my mind often, and sometimes think that I must want them to come in. I love the Lord and I really want these thoughts to stop.
My question is on 1 Samuel 3:10, in the verse it states that the LORD came and stood and called Samuel as the other times. The Hebrew word for “came” is bow’ which could mean (to enter, come in)… and the word “stood” in Hebrew is yatsab which means (station oneself or present oneself). Then in verse 21 in chapter 3 it states that the LORD appeared again to Samuel. The word for appeared in Hebrew is ra’ah which could mean (to be visible).
So I guess my real question is, was this a pre-incarnate appearance of Christ, as in other times in the OT?
Are Matthew 22:34-40 and Luke 10:25-37 the same story told from different perspectives or two separate stories? Jesus goes on with the Good Samaritan parable in Luke but, the story ends with the greatest commandment in Matthew. It appears the characters are the same.
I understand how we count years since our Lord’s death- EG, 1248ad, 1249ad, 1250ad, etc. How did we get the the “count-down” years before Christ was born? EG, 1250bc, 1249bc, 1248bc, etc? How was it that the ancients “knew” to count time downward to the promised, prophesied event of the coming Messiah?
I guess my question is, what was the starting point and how is it man knew to count downward? Very perplexing!
I have a question that’s been on my mind lately concerning Heaven and our mansion that’s mentioned in John 14:2. I was taught that this verse means each of us will have our own personal mansion. What does that say about our earthly family, particularly my wife. Will she have her own mansion? I know that the Bible tells us that there is no marriage or giving in marriage in heaven but can you explain to me how our lives will be in heaven if we’re all in separate mansions? What, if any, kind of social atmosphere will exist? Praising our Lord will be one activity, but will there be others as well?
Thank you so much for your wisdom and insight into the Bible. In one of your articles I remember you saying that trib believers would have different eternal rewards than the Church. I think this was from the letters to the seven churches in Revelation, but I think I see it wrong.
It said that the church in Philadelphia would be made into a pillar in the temple of God, never leaving it and always being a servant there while those in the church in Laodicea would be seated on the right of God. I am most confused by this because the impression I got was that those roles would be reversed, unless all believers’ rewards are the same.
Thank you for taking the time answer our questions. I was reading Luke 11:29-30. It is the passage where the crowds asked Jesus for a sign, but answering them, Jesus said that no sign would be given them except the sign of Jonah. I’m a little baffled as to why Jesus would phrase it this way since He’d been doing miracles left and right all this time. Weren’t those signs as well?
I love the Lord and his word; today while reading Proverbs 16 the word heart struck me again. How can this be, does the heart think? Am I thinking too literally?
The sinners prayer, If you believe in your heart and confess with your tongue that Jesus is Lord.
Proverbs 16:1 To man belong the plans of the heart but from the Lord the reply of the tongue.
:21 The wise in heart…, 23 A wise man’s heart….
Thank you in advance for your help.