I’ve carried a strong interest in Bible Prophecy for a number of years now. I’ve noticed of late some slight diversion as to the identity of the fourth beast of Dan 7. The traditional view has been that it is the Roman Empire and that we will soon see an end time revival of that empire. Another more recent view has been that the fourth beast is the Islamic Empire that began with the Ottoman Empire and has continued to this day. I believe that those holding this view reconcile the Roman Empire as an extension of the Grecian empire (through the 4 divisions that came out of this empire). I believe that those holding this view also acknowledge the Roman Empire as being one of the 7 heads of the beast identified in Rev 13. This more recent view has also led several to strongly suggest that both the beast and Antichrist must come from the East and that the Antichrist will be an Assyrian.

Unfortunately, my understanding of world history is not very strong. Was wondering if you could offer any thoughts on this.

I have a question about the term “prophesying” in the Bible. Although I am clear on what “Prophecy” itself is, specifically as it relates to the hundreds of prophecies about the Lord in the old and new Testaments and the “forth-telling” of coming events , when I read how people began to “prophesy” as the Spirit of the Lord came on them, I’m not too clear on it’s meaning. I am confused about what that means in a practical sense. Specifically, I am reading the book of 1 Samuel and would like to reference these verses, 10:6, 10:10-11, 10:13, 19:20-24 and also in the NT Act 2:17. Paul also says that he wishes we all would prophesy and that it’s something we should want to do and that it “speaks to men for edification and exhortation (1 Cor 14:3).

If I was prophesying, what would I actually be doing in these incidents?

I have heard it said that Isaiah has 66 books and that they are each a summary of the same numbered book in the bible. For instance the first book of Isaiah summarizes the book of Genesis. What are you thoughts on this subject. I have read Isaiah and have found that it does indeed mention Sodom and Gomorrah. But it does not seem to summarize it?

I married a Catholic over 5 years ago. We have two very young daughters. The more I find out about the Catholic Church, the more guilt I feel about attending and allowing my daughters to be a part it. When we were first married, we were both believers, but both very worldly. The older I get, the more seriously I’m taking my faith. Unfortunately, my wife doesn’t seem to be progressing at all. At any rate, I’ve decided that I will attend an Evangelical Free Church here in town. She is fine with that, but she doesn’t want our daughters growing up in anything but the Catholic Church. Obviously we’re at an impasse. What should I do? Am I abandoning my family by checking out this new church by myself?

Can you help understand the roles of the old and new testament prophets? I have searched your site over and over, yet I am still not completely grasping the concepts. I ask this because recently my pastor has asked some of us who have the gift of prophecy to listen to the Holy Spirit and if He gives promptings, visions, dreams, etc about him and the church we are at liberty to share this with him and allow him (my pastor) to judge those and make a decision. However, in the group I am the only one who believes that the office of prophet is no longer used outside of Christ. (Hebrews 1:2)

I would really like your help in understanding the roles of the prophets of the old testament and the ones of the new and please clarify the five fold ministry gifts to me. I really appreciate your help.

Am I still saved if I keep sinning the same sin? I feel that not going to church is a sin because of the Commandments yet I still continue to decline going, will this affect my salvation?

Recently, I read something I can’t seem to figure out. In 2 Chron 11:20 it says, “And after her he took Maachah the daughter of Absalom which bare him Abijah, and Attai, and Ziza, and Shelomith.” Also in 2 Chron 13:2 it says, He reigned three years in Jerusalem. His mother’s name also was Michaiah the daughter of Uriel of Gibeah. And there was war between Abijah and Jeroboam.” What I don’t understand is who is the mother of Abijah, Michaiah the daughter of Uriel or Maachah the daughter of Absalom?

I am not eager to challenge you, as I see God has given you much wisdom and insight into Scripture, which I am grateful you share with so many. However your response to the question regarding married or not was bewildering, and I’m not sure Biblical.

You make a point of saying we are to honor our legal authorities on all points unless is causes us to deny Christ. And yet you would help justify someone’s marital status based on their motives and level of commitment and not what even the law would recognize. And more importantly, did not Jesus himself even make a distinction to the woman at the well as her being with a man, and yet He refused to acknowledge the man as her husband because they were not indeed married?

Surely God does not love anyone less because of certain choices made, but I think He says His expectation is for us to be above reproach, particularly if we already know right from wrong. And shouldn’t our motive for obedience to God and what He might be asking always be “for His sake”?

I hear preachers and teachers say that God may forgive divorced people and bless their second marriage if they do “certain” things but I can’t find this in the Bible. I know you have to repent and then get out of the sin. If you do not have to get out of the sin then why should anyone stop their acts of sin if they confess and repent? I believe you have to remove yourself from the sin in order for it to be true repentance. I can steal and then ask God to forgive me but if I still continue in the sin how have I repented?

The Bible says that a man who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery and that no adulterer will enter into heaven. I can’t understand how He can forgive the sin of a second marriage when they continue in their adultery and then allow these people into heaven.

There is something I am very confused about with second marriages. It seems clear to me God hates divorce (which makes it a sin) and the Bible clearly states that a man who divorces his wife and takes another commits adultery.

I do believe God can not contradict himself so this states to me that after the ceremony is performed that he holds you to better or worse, rich or poor till death do you part. So why all the buts and ands and continuations of this very important commandment? Yes it is hard to swallow and of course people fall away but that does not change the command.

God said no adulterer will enter into heaven. I do not see where he forgives what to me is a sin for the second marriage and then allows these people into heaven. If marriage represent Christ and the church I just don’t see how God would sanction a second marriage. It just does not make since to me. What am I missing? I appreciate your hard work and in helping us find answers to difficult questions.