Why do we hear scholars talking about Greek or Hebrew meanings of words in the Bible? When does one know that he must look for a Greek or a Hebrew meaning of a word?

My friend just sent me the following. “In Matthew 24:29-31 Jesus says He will not send His angels to collect the elect (us) until after the tribulation. The word there for elect is used thirteen times in the New testament and always refers to the church. Pre trib was a hoax. I am more and more convinced of it every day I read my Bible. Thessalonians clearly states, “The dead in Christ will rise first, then we who are alive will be caught up with them in the air…” And the dead in Christ rise in Revelation 20:4, after the tribulation. As it turns out, we are no more deserving of escaping hard times than the first century church was when the Romans started persecuting them and throwing them to the lions.” What would I say to my friend? I am not secure enough in scripture to handle it.

I’m having a hard time wrapping my head around a couple things. First, The Word existed from the beginning along with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Several times He appeared as a man, such as to Abram. But when He appeared to Moses He appeared as a burning bush. Why didn’t He just appear as a man as He did other times? Second, when Jesus was born how did The Word become part of Jesus? Jesus had his own spirit and soul, so did The Word reside in Jesus or was The Word Jesus Himself?

I have a question concerning your article, “The Passover: History And Prophecy”

You make the suggestion that Jesus ate the Passover meal with his disciples on the evening of the 14th (beginning of the day). I believe this is a mistake as Jesus was on the cross at the exact moment the rest of the Passover lambs were being prepared 20 hours or so later.

Besides the Passover was eaten at sundown of the 15th. It seems confusing to assert the Last Supper was the Passover; even though the wine thing you present was really cool.

Otherwise, I love your stuff. I look forward to all your articles.

With Pesach approaching, Exodus 13:6-7 says:

Seven days thou shalt eat unleavened bread, and in the seventh day shall be a feast to the LORD. Unleavened bread shall be eaten seven days; and there shall no leavened bread be seen with thee, neither shall there be leaven seen with thee in all thy quarters.

Did Jesus enter Jerusalem 4 days before his crucifixion and then 3 days to rise making the 7th day the feast to the LORD?

I am trying to get the 7 days of Passover with Jesus. Can you please explain the unleavened/leavened bread with Jesus?

My brother recommended your web site and I have found comfort in your responses. My question has to do with why does God require innocent blood to be shed? Thank you in advance for any thoughts you share on this topic.

As Christians are we to celebrate Passover in like manner as the Jews, instead of Resurrection Sunday, so called Easter? Or is Passover for the Jews only?

You said that there is no sex in Heaven because there is no procreation, however, there is much more to sex than procreation. I can’t imagine going through eternity without the intimacy my wife and I have. The physical contact of cuddling, caressing and our intimate conversations. When we go to Heaven are we to be denied the love that we had for our partner in this life?

I have a question about the meaning of the word “incontinent” with regard to this being one of the characteristics people will exhibit during the last days. Does it refer to the inability to control the urge to urinate, or is there a different meaning when the word is used in scripture? If the meaning is in the conventional sense, how is that relevant? Thank you for enlightening me.

The Bible says that when Jesus ascended back to heaven, the Holy Spirit came to earth to act as the comforter to God’s people. Also I understand that He restrains evil till He is removed at the rapture. Knowing this, are we to assume that the earth was only evil completely lacking in love and understanding before the Holy Spirit arrived on the scene?