I’m struggling with the idea that Jesus came to fulfill the law. What does this really mean? In terms of the Levitical law, how do we know what to follow and not follow? From what I understand, the law wasn’t abolished. As I’ve attempted to make sense of Jesus fulfilling the law, it has occurred to me that perhaps the Holy Spirit guides us in what to do concerning the law? Finally, it seems that as a people, we have arbitrarily picked which areas of Levitical law to follow? Thanks for your answer.
Isaiah 53:5 has been one of my favorite scriptures for a while now, with it’s promises of healing prophesied long before Jesus physically took all of our sins, sicknesses, sorrows, etc. on the cross. But obviously there is more than just physical healing mentioned. In fact, the verse basically summarizes the entire gospel in advance. My question is this. What is the difference between transgression and iniquity? It seems pretty clear that both are sin, but I also know that the Hebrew language isn’t cluttered with words that have identical meanings, and that Hebrew words tend to be rather specific and yet thorough in their meaning.
My question is the word translated nations (h1471) in Isaiah 14:12. Does this refer to human nations only or can it possibly mean some sort of spirits/angels that may have dwelt on earth before Genesis 1:2? I’m not referring to a pre-adamite human race but something other than human. Hopefully this question will make sense to you.
Re: John 14:12. I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. Where in history has any human being done anything greater than Jesus did?
I have a question as to where in the Bible is the miracle of the 1-days supply of oil for the light lasting for 8-days until new oil could be prepared, recorded. I seem to recall that it happened during the Maccabean revolt, but have not been able to locate it.
I want to ask about the passage in John 1:32-34. This is the passage where John the Baptist states that even he did not recognize Jesus except that the Holy Spirit descended upon Him (Jesus). My question is, how is it that John the Baptist would recognize the Holy Spirit in the form of a bird (dove) but could not recognize Jesus in the form of a man? Didn’t John the Baptist even leap while yet in his mother’s womb at the voice of Mary (who was with child) when he was yet unborn, having recognized Jesus’ presence?