It has always seemed to me that Judas had a purpose in life and that was to be the betrayer, and I see this this way because of the man born blind so that Jesus could give him sight to bring glory to the Father. The blind man could do nothing about his condition as only Jesus could do that, and maybe Judas was born to be the betrayer, and could do nothing else, but once done the darkness he lived in lifted away and for the first time realized what had been done, was so remorseful that he could not face himself and took his own life. I would like to believe he asked for forgivness and salvation as he prepared to die.

Great site, thanks for all your insight.

I have a follow-up query about Judas. It would seem from the gospels that during Jesus’ ‘travels’ he came across many of the Jewish leaders , Pharisees, etc, and in fact was questioned and tested by them on several occasions. As they considered Jesus to be a threat to them, they possibly also had ‘spies’ keeping track of where Jesus was and what he was doing. In light of this I have often wondered why they needed Judas to ‘identify’ Jesus and tell the guards/officials where he was so they could arrest him, as surely they already knew what he looked like and where he could be found?

Since we’re in the Easter season, a thought occurred to me. What was Judas’ motive to betray Jesus? It certainly couldn’t be just the 30 pieces of silver. What did he stand to gain (in his mind) by betraying the Lord?

At our church, Malachi 3:10 is often quoted when they talk about giving. If they would just say that you are to give 10% and let it go, I would be ok, but they quote Mal. 3: v10 and say test God and see if the floodgates will not be opened. I think I have tested God and in my opinion, the floodgates have not been opened. I understand that you are supposed to give out of gratitude for what God has done for you and not because of what you will get from God. My question is, why do churches use Mal. 3 v10 as a tool for encouraging people to give?

I read that one remains in the grave until the rapture. If this is so why did Jesus say to the robber – today you will be with me in paradise? Is paradise another place? And when the poor man died he went to a place where Abraham was and they were talking and so on?

In my weekly bible study class, we were told the Jews were only in Egypt for 210 years and of that time only 80 some years were in hard labor, not the 400 years as I had always been taught. Is this correct?

As we all know that Daniel and his three friends were recruited and lived under the same Babylonian empire of Nebuchadnezzar (Daniel 1:17-20; 2:17-19), why was Daniel not a part of the pack who defied the king’s command to worship the golden statue (Daniel 3:8-18). When they were thrown into the fire, what was Daniel doing who was also living as a ruler and the chief administrator over all the whole province of Babylon (Daniel 2:47-48)? Was it because of his position of rulership along with the king that he was excluded and thus was not compelled to worship the golden Idol?

Did early Christians/Jews use the cross before Jesus died?

I wonder if you have ever run across any teaching on eternal security that takes what’s called a “3rd view”, as distinct from both loss of salvation and OSAS.

One teacher, in particular, uses Hebrews 6 to point to the fact that IF we can be categorized as having tasted of the good things of the Lord, and then become, by choice, apostate, God is not going to take us to live forever with him because He honors our right to choose – not because we need to be punished.

Do you see any circumstances under which having once been saved, we can go to a lost eternity? How do you feel about God taking us to Himself “against our will”? Any enlightened person would not choose to go to hell!!

I saw your answer concerning various Bible translations and I have a question to add to it.

Romans 8:1 in the KJV says “there is no condemnation…for those who walk not after the flesh, but after the spirit”.

The NIV leaves out, although there is a footnote, “that walk not after the flesh, but after the spirit”. There are other places where the NIV leaves out portions of scripture but has a similar footnote. some claim this is a good reason to avoid the NIV.

I like the NIV and read it frequently, and will continue to do so. But why did the translators publish the NIV this way? is it unethical, or intellectually dishonest?