Can you explain Luke 21:36 to me? Maybe it is for Israel in the Tribulation, but I always wonder when I read it if we are supposed to pray about this. It makes it sound as if we may not go in the rapture before the Tribulation if we don’t pray about it. I’ve never heard anyone explain this verse that I can remember.
Every now and then, we hear news about a Muslim or other faith person, who did not believe that Jesus is the Son of God, but then, they had a dream or vision where Jesus appeared to them, and thereafter they believed in Him. I know that Father God is sovereign and can do as He pleases. But, I also know, that He is Just. Therefore could it be expected, that one person is obliged to live by faith alone and not by what he sees, but another person gets supernatural “help” to believe, through an appearance, or a dream? Would that be fair to us other mere mortals, who must rely on faith alone, because we have not supernaturally seen?
I have a question about Abraham in Hebrews 11:10: “For he (Abraham) looked for a city which hath foundations, whose builder and maker is God”. Every time I read something you’ve written about The New Jerusalem being the permanent home of the Church and only the Church, that verse always comes up in my mind. How do I rectify Abraham looking for a city whose maker and builder is God? Is this city that he is looking for the same city we, the church, will occupy? If so, is Abraham part of the church too?
Since God is more interested in motives than our works, how do we know our motives are correct? I have a little “something” I do & try to make sure the recipient doesn’t know who I am. I include a verse so God receives the glory, and hesitate to share so I don’t appear to “blow my own horn”. However I actually REALLY enjoy doing this. I find it very fulfilling. How do I know when/if I’ve stepped over the line & am just doing it for my own satisfaction?
I am curious about differences between the KJV and the NIV bibles when Jesus talks about murder and being angry at your brother. In Matthew 5:21-22 Jesus tells the people,
You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, “do not murder, and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment. But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment.”
I understand that Jesus is trying to convey that being angry is just as wrong and just as much a sin as if you actually killed the person. But in the KJV verse 22 says “But I say to you that whoever is angry with his brother without a cause …”
Why does it say without a cause and why was this omitted from the NIV and ASV. I know that the KJV is one of the oldest versions and therefore is one of the closest to the correct translation along with the ASV. Does that mean that as long as you have a just cause such as finding out your spouse cheated on you…then you are allowed to be angry and not be considered sinning? And if not then what is the meaning behind it in the KJV? Thanks for you time and God bless.
I sometimes meet people who seem to have truly evil hearts and minds. I’ve pondered whether they have a soul, or if their soul is black. It’s very difficult to understand what their soul must be like because of their behavior and thinking. Do some people not have souls? Or are their souls and hearts so thoroughly corrupted that they feel black?