Can you help me to understand what the Lord is saying to us in Phil 2:6? The ESV renders it: “Who, though He was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped” yet the KJV renders it: “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.”
To me, the KJV rendering seems to suggest that Jesus had no problem with considering Himself (while as a man) to be equal with God. All the other versions I’ve read are similar to the ESV rendering in that He didn’t regard Himself that highly out of humility. Am I misreading something here? I honestly don’t know if He did or didn’t think this way of Himself. Thank you for your help. I am very thankful for the edifying ministry of this website!
I’ve been reading your “Ask a Bible Teacher” articles for a couple of months now and want to say thank you for all the time you put into this site. I have a question that has been on my heart and mind for a while now. I’ve understood ‘Praying in the Spirit’ to be following the leading of the Holy Spirit when we pray. (I’ve heard it said that praying in the Spirit is also speaking in tongues, but I’m not sure that’s entirely correct.) In Revelation 1:10. John says he was “in the Spirit” before hearing the loud, booming voice. Is this the same thing as praying in the Spirit? If not, what exactly does John mean when he says he was “in the Spirit”?
In Matthew 12:22-37 I know the context is about the Pharisees saying Jesus casts out devils with help of Beelzebub. In verses 36-37 Jesus says “But I tell you that men will have to give account on the day of judgement for every careless word they have spoken. For by your words you will be acquitted, and by your words you will be condemned.” (NIV)
I don’t understand this to a degree. If we are saved by grace through faith, then by what merit of words will we be acquitted and by what merit words will we be condemned? Will all our words be brought before us at the Judgement Seat to give an account for? I’m struggling with this, and would appreciate any help regarding this. Thank you for your time.
I do not have understanding on 1 Corinthians 5:5. In my bible the heading for vs. 3-5 is “method of judgement for sin in the local church.” Even while I incorporate the literal, historical, grammatical, contextual method, I still cannot reason the meaning of this verse. How does one go about “turning or delivering” one over to Satan? How does one know when to enact such a seemingly cruel action? It doesn’t sound like grace but more like judgement.
The church that our family attends is a typical Baptist church. We have attended for several years and even teach Sunday school there, but the people of the church are just going through the traditional motions. There is no excitement, no anticipation of Christ’s return, and the children’s ministry consists of coloring pictures and eating snacks. There’s a larger Baptist church down the road. We would love to go there instead because there’s excitement, anticipation, and great teaching for adults and children both. The problem is that we feel an obligation to teach our class (high school & college age), and feel like we’re abandoning them by leaving. How should we handle this?
I was wondering why in the Gospel of Mark, generally characterized by using the word “immediately”, the fig tree cursed by the Lord did not appear to have withered until the following day whereas in Matthew, not necessarily a book of “speed”, the fig tree withered immediately.
In your response to the question of how to prepare for the Rapture you said to remove as much debt as possible, or words to that effect. I was a member of a church where the pastor said that debt was not a problem. If the Church was in a lot of debt at the Rapture let Satan and his followers settle with the debt after the Church is gone. What do you think about that?