In studying the the subject of the trinity I came across I John 5:7. I have been told that this text is not in the Septuagint, the oldest Greek version of the Bible. If this verse is not in the Septuagint does that mean it is not inspired by God? How would one know if it is in the original?
I happened to run across a web site where a man is stating that the ‘last trumpet’ is at the end of the Tribulation and that a man in the 1800’s called John Nelson Darby changed the timing of the Rapture to before the Tribulation but before that it was believed it would happen at the end of the Tribulation. I may not be explaining what this man said very well but I think I got the general gist of it. You’ve probably heard of this man and what he believes. Please could you explain why he is wrong.
In Matt. 8:28-34 Jesus cast a number of demons out of 2 men in into a herd of pigs who then plunged into the Sea of Galilee. Mark and Luke both say there was only one man and locate the event in a different place.
Is this the same event, a contradiction, or just a different aspect from the Gospel writers being told? Are Gergesenes and Gadarenes the same? Did Luke focus on the one man and the details about him rather than two men like Matthew and Mark do?
My husband had a business partner for 6 years and that partner embezzled money etc. then pushed him out of the company. We know the bible says not to take your brother to court. If it boils down to if he’s a Christian or not, that is questionable because he holds to a works-based belief.
I have a question about something I just read on a well known prophecy website. The commentator was not addressing this subject specifically, but stated that:
“Prior to the death of Christ on the cross, it was only necessary that man believe in Who Jesus said He was. Proof of this revelation is evidenced through the testimony of Peter and the testimony of the thief on the cross. (See Mark 8:29 and Luke 23:42)
Now I do not know how exactly he meant this, but it makes it appear that the gospel Jesus preached in John 3:16 and John 6:29 changed after the cross. He could not be referring to Old Testament saints because of his scripture references. If this were to be true then we would have problems in dealing with difficult passages regarding salvation that occur after the gospels. Can you address this?
Where in the world are our rabbis? I am amazed at the information I was never given in a church building. I have learned more in the past three years online (and doing other research) about the symbolism, and the prophecies, and just the basic social implications of the stories in the Bible than I ever got at a church in all my 41 years. It’s like comparing watery Kool-Aid to the best wine ever made. Why, why, why didn’t anyone ever teach me any of this stuff? I’ve been starving for this information all my life and didn’t even know it was there—I just figured there was too much mystery in the Bible for me to ever really understand much of it. The information you provide is one of the invaluable sources I have come to trust and rely upon–I just wanted you to know how much I appreciate you.
When we’re in the Word – the devil distracts us. When we receive revelation on the Word – the devil comes to steal it. When we’re ready to receive a breakthrough – the devil distracts us or keeps us too busy.
How does he know where we are at? How does he know what we’re receiving? How does he know what we’re about to receive? Or is he in general just wreaking havoc at all times? Is he omnipresent? Thanks for any insights.
I have just read a question from someone else to you and need to check something. Basically it was asking about sin and you said obviously we need to confess our sins.
Most times when I sin, like laugh at someone else’s misfortune or say something nasty I immediately think I shouldn’t have done that and say sorry to the Lord in my head. Is this enough? What should I be doing if not?
Thank you very much, all the questions and your answers are helping me greatly.
I have a question about the following verses:
“Consider it pure joy, my brothers, whenever you face trials of many kinds because you know that the testing of your faith develops perseverance.” (James 1:2)
“In this you greatly rejoice, though now for a little while you may have had to suffer grief in all kinds of trials. These have come so that your faith; of greater worth than gold, which perishes even though refined by fire, may be proved genuine and may result in praise, glory, and honor when Jesus Christ is revealed.”(1Peter 1:6,7)
These two verses always used to back why God allows suffering in a believer’s life. When you wrote about Job, you said God doesn’t cause us to suffer arbitrarily, but when we have unconfessed sins in our lives and are out of fellowship, He, being perfectly just, has to allow Satan to torment us. So I don’t understand the true meaning of the verses and they distress me. What is the right perspective?