I do not believe the bible addresses this but it’s a valid question and I do not know how to answer it.

Why did God wait 4,000 years to send Jesus and another 2,000 + before bringing things to a close (the close obviously having not happened yet)? Why not have provided the sacrifice up front and wipe out the following 6,000 + years of suffering?

The gifts of the Spirit in the Bible lists speaking in tongues. Why do only Charismatic type churches practice this gift. Most other churches say it ended, I am confused. Where does it say it ended. The Bible does not say the other gifts ended, why that one?

I have a friend who thinks we’re already experiencing the seal judgments. I told him that the Tribulation can’t officially start until the covenant is signed and confirmed between Israel and the Antichrist, and that has not happened yet. So the four seals are not in the process of being opened. Nor will they be, until we, the Church, are out of here. I said what we are experiencing now are birth pangs. The seal, trumpet, and bowl judgments won’t commence until the Age of Grace is finished and the last 7 years of the Age of the Law begin. We’ll be in Heaven with Jesus by then. He asked me for the scripture references for the points I made. Any aid you can give me on this will be greatly appreciated.

Some say that 2 Cor. 5:6-8 means we Christians when we die, our spirit will go to be with the Lord. Our bodies and souls (mind, will, emotions) stay asleep until Christ returns at the last trumpet. I am confused as to whether the body with the soul is asleep and the spirit goes to be with the Lord. If the soul is asleep with the body, then what does the spirit do with the Lord and what about those who are alive will be caught up in the air with those who are raised from sleep?

So where do we, and what part of us go, when we die?

I just picked up a documentary (on the End Times) which is very well done with some amazing special effects and I enjoyed it very much. However, when I checked the scriptures that are being used to introduce one of the segments concerning the end of days gathering of Israel’s enemies at tribulation, they use Luke 21:20 to describe the events leading up to tribulation.

When I read that verse in context it sounds more like the fall of Jerusalem in 70AD by the Romans. Especially since what happens after is that Jersualem will fall by the sword and taken prisoners to all nations (Luke 21:24) and that Jerusalem would be trampled under foot until the times of the Gentiles has ended. That sounds like the two thousand year Diaspora prior to the rebirth of Israel in 1948. So, using Luke 21:20 to describe a tribulation event sounds incorrect to me.

Have I missed something? Is there anyway that Titus may have stood in the Temple and declared himself God fulfilling this prophecy?

In the parable of the Shrewd Manager in Luke 16, Jesus said in verse 8 “The master commended the dishonest manager because he had acted shrewdly. For the people of this world are more shrewd in dealing with their own kind than are the people of light.”

Even though the manager was dishonest, he was still commended for his shrewdness.

Is this a gentle, but firm rebuke against Christians (followers, believers) because they are not wisely handling money or because of poor stewardship? Does he suggest that we could “learn” from the ways of the world when it comes to money? Is he suggesting that, we as Christians must be wiser and shrewd in our business dealings? What if we engage in a financial transaction with our family and things don’t work out, do we need to be shrewd with our own family members?

I have been a Believer for many years (several decades, actually), and have sat under the Church’s teaching on evangelism feeling condemned for not “doing my part” in the Great Commission. To tell you the truth, I can not recall praying with anyone to lead them to the Savior.

Several years ago, I experienced an extreme personal revival through which time I came to love and “thirst” after Jesus like never before. It was like a consuming thing – so intense that I thought that I would explode. While this intensity has subsided (can’t imagine anyone living in that for very long), I have been permanently changed. During that time, the LORD challenged many of my religious ideas, one of which is the carrying out of the “Great Commission”. There are many individuals within the Church who are driven by their gift of evangelism. While every Believer is a Light-bearer and should be ready to give a reason for the hope within them, not all have the gift of evangelism where they see the LORD work them them to bring people to Himself.

I believe that I have a gift of teaching and used to get so frustrated with fellow-Believers that they don’t have a clear understand or love for the Bible. I see now that I was being driven by my gift of teaching in the same manner as the evangelist.

The Church today seems to be in a cycle where the key thrust is to “reach the lost”. I recall that several years ago, the thrust was a deeper relationship with God. Could it be that we Believers tend to emphasize our passion/gifts (whether witnessing, teaching, helps, etc) as the most important function of the Church, leaving each other bruised as a result?

Are all angels male? Just wondering, I thought some are female and then my sister told me she heard all angels are male. Thanks for your time.

Genesis 2:24 says “Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.”

There is not a companion verse in the Bible which expressly says that a woman should leave her father and mother, and cleave unto her husband. Yet I am sure this is implied in Genesis 2:24 and is borne out in the New Testament and in the narratives of the stories of the wives of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Can I have your thoughts on Genesis 2:24 and its applicability to a woman in a modern-day marriage?

What is your take on Rahab the harlot of the book of Joshua being a different person than the Rahab of Matthew that married Salmon? According to R.K.Phillips, they are two distinctly different individuals. He backs his statement up using the Hebrew, and the Greek Septuagint, and the Greek of The New Testament. I have always heard they were one in the same. But there is a large gap of time that has never been accounted for. Please give me your take on this subject.