I’m having a hard time wrapping my head around a couple things. First, The Word existed from the beginning along with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Several times He appeared as a man, such as to Abram. But when He appeared to Moses He appeared as a burning bush. Why didn’t He just appear as a man as He did other times? Second, when Jesus was born how did The Word become part of Jesus? Jesus had his own spirit and soul, so did The Word reside in Jesus or was The Word Jesus Himself?

I have a question concerning your article, “The Passover: History And Prophecy”

You make the suggestion that Jesus ate the Passover meal with his disciples on the evening of the 14th (beginning of the day). I believe this is a mistake as Jesus was on the cross at the exact moment the rest of the Passover lambs were being prepared 20 hours or so later.

Besides the Passover was eaten at sundown of the 15th. It seems confusing to assert the Last Supper was the Passover; even though the wine thing you present was really cool.

Otherwise, I love your stuff. I look forward to all your articles.

With Pesach approaching, Exodus 13:6-7 says:

Seven days thou shalt eat unleavened bread, and in the seventh day shall be a feast to the LORD. Unleavened bread shall be eaten seven days; and there shall no leavened bread be seen with thee, neither shall there be leaven seen with thee in all thy quarters.

Did Jesus enter Jerusalem 4 days before his crucifixion and then 3 days to rise making the 7th day the feast to the LORD?

I am trying to get the 7 days of Passover with Jesus. Can you please explain the unleavened/leavened bread with Jesus?

I have a question about the meaning of the word “incontinent” with regard to this being one of the characteristics people will exhibit during the last days. Does it refer to the inability to control the urge to urinate, or is there a different meaning when the word is used in scripture? If the meaning is in the conventional sense, how is that relevant? Thank you for enlightening me.

The Bible says that when Jesus ascended back to heaven, the Holy Spirit came to earth to act as the comforter to God’s people. Also I understand that He restrains evil till He is removed at the rapture. Knowing this, are we to assume that the earth was only evil completely lacking in love and understanding before the Holy Spirit arrived on the scene?

I’ve been giving a Jewish woman at work some of the questions and prophecy studies from your site and a question came up that I couldn’t answer. Is our Old Testament the same as theirs?

When my son was younger he believed in the Lord Jesus Christ. Since coming back from war, seeing what he saw and doing what he had to do, he now says that all religions are the same. Controlling and killing each other, all man made. I know that once we are sealed, nothing can separate us from God. But can a person ask the Lord to forgive him, believe in Him, and then turn away from him?

I am studying in the book of Genesis. Can you give me any insight into the river that went out of Eden, and was parted and became four heads, Pishon, Gihon, Hiddekel, and Euphrates? Are there Spiritual and or literal interpretations?

I greatly appreciate your responses to the question asked of you. I was raised Catholic, and know that the Catholic church claims Jesus made Peter the first pope. I know the passage they refer to as their proof of this, but can find no basis for believing that to be the correct interpretation of this passage. How would you respond to this claim?

You’ve written that the old testament saints were saved if they died believing that God would fulfill His promise to send the Redeemer (Genesis 12:3). Although they never saw Him, their faith saved them. Perfect, I got it. But you’ve oft times also written that the Holy Spirit deals differently with the church than any other group of people. I believe that too. Therefore OT saints (like post-rapture believers will) had to remain faithful in order to keep their salvation because they are not sealed with the Holy Spirit like church age people are. But doesn’t this imply a works-based salvation rather than a faith-based one? If their faith in the coming Messiah saved them, they shouldn’t have to “work” to keep that salvation.