Posted May 15th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. Given the “peak to peak” view of End Times prophecies, why is it that the Church Age is always omitted from the clear statement of prophecy? Also, given the importance of the Church in God’s scheme, why did He fail to tell mankind about it?
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Posted May 6th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. I understand the fact that after the rapture the Holy Spirit will no longer be sealed within those who become believers. It is however too difficult for me to share this with my brothers and sisters in Christ because they continue to look at the New Testament scriptures for the Church and believe God would not give the sealing of the Holy Spirit to one believer and not another, even if it is a Tribulation saint.
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Posted May 1st, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. I’m having a hard time understanding why so many people think that the multitude in Rev. 7:9 are new Christians killed sometime after the Rapture! I find two problems with this theory: First, it says in Rev. 20:4-5 that the martyred saints are given glorified bodies at that time, not way back in Chapter 7. Also, could there really be that many people coming to Christ ALL AT ONCE during such troublesome times, especially in light of the fact that God “sends a strong delusion, that they should believe a lie”? Until someone can give me good Scriptural backing, I will stay convinced that we Christians are the multitude of Rev. 7:9.
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Posted April 23rd, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. Where do we find in scripture that the celestial New Jerusalem is for the Church? The 12 gates are named for the 12 tribes of Israel and the foundation stones are the same as the stones on the High Priest’s breast plate.
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Posted April 18th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. I know the OT saints and the Tribulation saints will be resurrected at the 2nd coming of Christ but why will the Church be resurrected at the rapture and the OT saints still be in the grave?
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Posted April 13th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. I hear “prophets” mention that there will be a “great harvest” before the rapture. If this is true, where is this prophesied in the bible? One such prophet declared, “Indeed, we stand on the verge of the greatest harvest the world has ever seen. Never forget: the Lord will have His harvest. The Spirit of God is now at work to “harvest the harvesters.” More than a billion people will soon be swiftly brought into the Kingdom of God.” He does not give a scripture reference, nor do others I have noticed. What do you make of this?
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Posted April 12th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. God provided manna to the Israelites until they entered the promised land through-out their 40 years journey in the desert but there are a few questions that cross my mind: First, the Israelites received the ceremonial law at Mt. Sinai for their worship and were instructed to use lambs, cows, pigeons, wheat, etc. for offerings. If they were in the desert and constantly on the move, how could they find those items for offerings? Second, sea cows are aquatic animals. how did they find sea cows for the Tabernacle covering from the desert? And third, since they had animals, olive oil, and wheat, why did they need manna?
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Posted March 30th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. It seems that people who don’t believe in the rapture see the tribulation time period as the wrath of the anti-Christ only – a persecution of Christians being allowed by God. Is it accurate to say that the tribulation time period is the wrath of God being unleashed after the rapture, and that the anti-Christ is using the time to make himself God while he can?
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Posted March 28th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. I find it interesting that everything I read in your responses has the church living in a different location than God’s chosen people for eternity. I’m confused about the kingdom of God. It seems to be offered to the disciples who became part of the church. It says they would be rulers in the kingdom of God. Are the Jews not part of that kingdom?
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Posted March 18th, 2013 in Ask a Bible Teacher
Q. Descriptions of sin offerings, especially in Leviticus, show that they were for unintentional sins. No provision seemed to have been made for deliberate sins. Does that mean that Jesus died only for our unintentional sins? Does that mean that even today, after getting born again, “deliberate sins” we commit aren’t under the blood of Jesus?
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