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During a recent discussion about the Apostles Creed, the question came up as to why Jesus descended into hell before He rose from the dead. One of the proposed answers was that it was so that Jesus could take the keys to hell and death from Satan. However, we are unable to locate any scripture to support this proposed answer. We do find that in Revelation 1:18, He has the keys to hell and death. When and how did He get them?
When Christ was on the cross and he looked at the Roman soldiers who were killing him and said, “Forgive them Father, for they know not what they do.” Does this mean that God forgave them and they will be in heaven or did he just forgive them for those sins and not the ones afterward?
Where do believers go after death? Do they go straight to heaven, or a lower level of heaven, or a waiting room? In 1 Thessalonians it talks about the dead in Christ rising. Where do dead believers rise from?
Recently the topic of fear came up in a family discussion. I made the statement that it isn’t wrong to be afraid. (ie: night before surgery, facing a dangerous situation like cancer) What is wrong is if we allow fear to overpower us. Being fearful and stepping out in faith anyway shows our trust in God that he is going to do what he says. Can you help me back this up with scripture?
I was reading your answer about the 2 legs of the statue in Daniel that they were indicative of two Romes (I’ve also heard it taught that they are indicative of the two halves of the empire of the Seleucids) But I started wondering then, by that logic the chest and arms would also have to be representing three different parts of the Media-Persian empire, wouldn’t they?
Comparing the references to water in John 3:5 and 1 John 5:6: The John 3:5 reference is considered by many (and I agree) to mean physical birth, yet the 1 John 5:6 reference is considered by some to mean baptism. I believe that 1 John was written, in part, to refute false teaching and to stress that Jesus did come in the flesh. Because of that, it seems that there would be consistency in the usage of the word ‘water’ between the two passages with each one referring to physical birth. Can you point out what I’m missing?