How do I show somebody with a limited knowledge of the Bible that the prophecies it contains are real and are an important part of scripture (I understand it to comprise between 28-30% of scripture depending on who you ask), and that the whole point of God speaking through His prophets was to give us insight into events to come and not just confuse us?

In the Bible when it talks about all the nations of the earth will turn against Israel, is that the nations known at the time or literally every nation. If literal what does the Lord mean when He says He will separate the Sheep from the goats, which seems to be a reference to nations.

I came across a website that opposes Eternal Security. The author has a lot to say and has scripture references to back up everything he says. I’d like to know what you think and maybe point out anything wrong with his opinion. I am really beginning to doubt the OSAS doctrine and honestly question why the Gospel is even called the Good news.

Re: Blessed are The Meek. Regarding “inheritance” as mentioned in Matt 5:5. you said, “if Jesus was given the Earth as His inheritance and if we have been made co-heirs with Him then we also will inherit the Earth, just like He said in Romans 8:17 and Galatians 4:7.” I agree on what the bible says, however, I have also read in your column that we being included in the family called “church” will populate the “New Jerusalem”. This is where my confusion arises, so my question is: Do you want us to believe that as we populate the new Jerusalem, we will also inherit the new earth? Please explain further.

I have a Holy Spirit Question. I’m newly saved and have fallen in love with the Word Of God. Can a saved person today know if they have received the gift of the Holy Spirit?

Would you please expand on the last sentence from “The Fall Feasts of Israel”?

“Before the cross the goat that was to be presented to the Lord as a sin offering was always on the right hand of the High Priest. After the cross it never was.”

Can you help me to understand what the Lord is saying to us in Phil 2:6? The ESV renders it: “Who, though He was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped” yet the KJV renders it: “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.”

To me, the KJV rendering seems to suggest that Jesus had no problem with considering Himself (while as a man) to be equal with God. All the other versions I’ve read are similar to the ESV rendering in that He didn’t regard Himself that highly out of humility. Am I misreading something here? I honestly don’t know if He did or didn’t think this way of Himself. Thank you for your help. I am very thankful for the edifying ministry of this website!

I’ve been reading your “Ask a Bible Teacher” articles for a couple of months now and want to say thank you for all the time you put into this site. I have a question that has been on my heart and mind for a while now. I’ve understood ‘Praying in the Spirit’ to be following the leading of the Holy Spirit when we pray. (I’ve heard it said that praying in the Spirit is also speaking in tongues, but I’m not sure that’s entirely correct.) In Revelation 1:10. John says he was “in the Spirit” before hearing the loud, booming voice. Is this the same thing as praying in the Spirit? If not, what exactly does John mean when he says he was “in the Spirit”?

I had a discussion with one of my friends about angels. He was basically arguing that everything created by God is a child of God, including Satan and all the angels. I know that God loves all his creations, but do you think that God considers all his creations his children (including believers, unbelievers, animals, and angels)?

In Matthew 12:22-37 I know the context is about the Pharisees saying Jesus casts out devils with help of Beelzebub. In verses 36-37 Jesus says “But I tell you that men will have to give account on the day of judgement for every careless word they have spoken. For by your words you will be acquitted, and by your words you will be condemned.” (NIV)

I don’t understand this to a degree. If we are saved by grace through faith, then by what merit of words will we be acquitted and by what merit words will we be condemned? Will all our words be brought before us at the Judgement Seat to give an account for? I’m struggling with this, and would appreciate any help regarding this. Thank you for your time.