I am puzzled by a difference in the wording of Matthew 24:36. My NIV says “nor the son…” but my KJV says “But of the day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.” (no mention of the son) What is the correct interpretation – does the son know or not? Jesus is the Godhead and if the Father knows, wouldn’t Jesus also know? Sorry if this is sounds confusing, but I am learning to check different versions.
In their different ways, both translations say that when Jesus said those words from Matt. 24:36 even He didn’t know about the day or hour of his coming. Only God knew. He was on Earth as a man, and had put aside His Godly powers. We don’t know exactly how this was accomplished but the effect was to make Him totally human. (If you read it carefully, you can see that one aspect of the wilderness temptation was to get Jesus to take up His godly powers again. Had He done so, He would have blown His mission.)
Later, after the ascension, the details of the End Times were revealed to Him, and He then revealed them to John. Rev. 1:1 says “the Revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave to Him to show His servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to His servant John …”
In other words, God revealed it to Jesus who revealed it to John. (The Greek word for angel simply means messenger. Jesus did not come to John as an angel in the sense that we understand the word.)