Re: Does God Call Everyone? I see what you are saying for the two different Greek words used for “called” in Romans 8:30 and Matthew 22:14. However, the Greek word in Romans 8:28 is also the same as the one used in Matthew 22:14. Does this mean the people in Romans 8:28 are not the same as the ones being discussed in Romans 8:30? This whole thing is really confusing.
Romans 8:28 says,
And we know that in all things God works for the good of those who love him, who have been called according to his purpose.
This is an overview statement of what God is doing. It refers to those who are already believers. We know this by Paul’s use of the phrases “those who love Him” (which is self explanatory) and “who have been called according to His purpose”. The literal translation of “who have been called” is “who are the called.” Putting the definite article before called implies that he was referring to a particular group of people, those who love God.
In Ephesians 3:10-11 Paul explained what being called according to His purpose means.
“His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms, according to his eternal purpose which he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord.”
By seeing how God provided provided the remedy for our sins and blessed us above all others for accepting it, the angelic host would learn about the true extent of God’s infinite wisdom.
OK, back to Romans 8. The word “for” that begins Romans 8:29-30 tells us Paul was explaining how the people he was referring to in Romans 8:28 came to be part of the Church. Out of His foreknowledge God predestined us. Those He predestined He also called. Those He called He also justified. and those He justified He also glorified. Using the stronger word for called in his explanation underscores the fact that God was urging us to do something He already knew we would do.