Q
Why did Paul use the word “Gentiles” in Romans 11:25 when it is the Church he was referring to that would come into “fullness”? Shouldn’t it be “fullness of believers” since the Church consists of both Jews and Gentiles?
A
Yes, the Church consists of those who were formerly Jews and those who were formerly Gentiles. Paul explained this in Ephesians 2:14-16. I believe Paul used the word Gentiles in Romans 11:25 to be consistent with what he heard James say in Acts 15:13-18 to the effect that Israel was being set aside while the Lord takes a people for Himself from among the Gentiles. James was also referring to the Church.