I have been reading your posts on the possible date for the 2nd coming of Christ and have found that you reference Matthew 24:34 allot. I have been reading Matthew 24 through and when I reach verse 34 and Jesus mentions the generations it almost sounds like he is referring to the disciples generation and does not mention a generation after the rebirth of Israel. My question is how did you come up with the 1948 rebirth of Israel as the generation Jesus is talking about?
There are several reasons. First, the things the Lord mentioned, like the Abomination of Desolation and the Great Tribulation, didn’t happen in the generation of the disciples. Second, the context of the passage is “signs indicating the end times”. That means the phrase “this generation” refers to the generation in which the signs would take place. Third, the generation being born in 1948 is the first one in which the signs could occur, because the Temple was destroyed in 70 AD and the nation ceased to exist shortly there after.
For further support, here’s a link to my answer on how we know the rebirth of Israel is a sign that the end times have begun.