What evidence do we have that Old Testament prophecies we believe to be Messianic in nature are also considered to be Messianic Prophecies by the Jewish people? And if our versions of them are the same what is their reasoning for not accepting Jesus?
The evidence that both are the same is that we both read them from the same Scripture. We call it the Old Testament.
At the time the Lord came, Israel didn’t understand that the Messiah had a two-fold purpose in coming. The first was to handle their sin problem, and the second was to establish His kingdom in Israel.
They didn’t think they had a sin problem. They thought obeying the Law was sufficient and were looking for fulfillment of the prophecies of the Kingdom. Since they didn’t accept the way He handled their sin problem, He couldn’t establish the Kingdom.
To this day they don’t understand this and the answer they most often give for their refusal to accept Jesus is that He failed to fulfill the prophecies of the Kingdom.