I’m hoping for a bit of clarification. Rev 20:5 states that the Tribulation Saints are part of the first resurrection, occurring after the second coming. Yet, if the dead in Christ are resurrected at the Rapture (1 Thes. 4:16), how is this not the first resurrection as it will occur at least 7 years earlier?
Jesus was the first fruits of the first resurrection 2,000 years ago (1 Cor. 15:20). Rev. 20:5 says tribulation martyrs who are raised at the time of the 2nd Coming, still at least seven years future to us, are also part of the first resurrection. Therefore any believers who are resurrected between those two events are part of it as well. This would refer specifically to those who are resurrected at the time of the rapture (1 Thes. 4:16-17).