I have a question that will likely be easy for you to answer but I am going to ask anyway. In John, the man who ate with and saw Jesus says that no man has seen the face of God. In light of the fact that I have been taught that Jesus was fully man and fully God, how does John’s statement play out?
I assume you’re referring to John 6:46, “No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father.”
While the Son is the physical manifestation of the Father (Colossians 1:15), God is Spirit (John 4:24) and is therefore invisible to man. We would call this a technicality, but in the context of John 6, Jesus was using it to establish His credibility with those who didn’t believe He was who He claimed to be.