My son and I were swapping bible verses when we came upon an apparent discrepancy. In John 19:30 it appears Jesus drank what the soldiers offered. However, in Mark 15:23 it appears He didn’t and the other two gospels don’t mention anything about it. I’m sure there is a good reason why there appears a discrepancy but can’t think what! Could it be that both the verses were referring to two different drinks. We would appreciate your help in understanding this matter.
These two verses are describing two different instances. In Mark 15:32 Jesus was being offered wine laced with a narcotic to lessen the pain of His crucifixion before He was placed on the cross. He refused it.
In John 19:30 He had been on the cross for 6 hours and was nearly dead. He asked for a sip of wine so that He could fulfill the passover prophecy. By drinking the wine at that point He was symbolizing God’s fourth promise of Exodus 6:6-7, “I will take you as my own people and I will be your God.”
This meant that from that time on anyone who accepted His death as payment for their sins would become part of God’s eternal family.