Two Cups Of Wine

Q

My son and I were swapping bible verses when we came upon an apparent discrepancy. In John 19:30 it appears Jesus drank what the soldiers offered. However, in Mark 15:23 it appears He didn’t and the other two gospels don’t mention anything about it. I’m sure there is a good reason why there appears a discrepancy but can’t think what! Could it be that both the verses were referring to two different drinks. We would appreciate your help in understanding this matter.

A

These two verses are describing two different instances. In Mark 15:32 Jesus was being offered wine laced with a narcotic to lessen the pain of His crucifixion before He was placed on the cross. He refused it.

In John 19:30 He had been on the cross for 6 hours and was nearly dead. He asked for a sip of wine so that He could fulfill the passover prophecy. By drinking the wine at that point He was symbolizing God’s fourth promise of Exodus 6:6-7, “I will take you as my own people and I will be your God.”

This meant that from that time on anyone who accepted His death as payment for their sins would become part of God’s eternal family.