I am not eager to challenge you, as I see God has given you much wisdom and insight into Scripture, which I am grateful you share with so many. However your response to the question regarding married or not was bewildering, and I’m not sure Biblical.

You make a point of saying we are to honor our legal authorities on all points unless is causes us to deny Christ. And yet you would help justify someone’s marital status based on their motives and level of commitment and not what even the law would recognize. And more importantly, did not Jesus himself even make a distinction to the woman at the well as her being with a man, and yet He refused to acknowledge the man as her husband because they were not indeed married?

Surely God does not love anyone less because of certain choices made, but I think He says His expectation is for us to be above reproach, particularly if we already know right from wrong. And shouldn’t our motive for obedience to God and what He might be asking always be “for His sake”?

I hear preachers and teachers say that God may forgive divorced people and bless their second marriage if they do “certain” things but I can’t find this in the Bible. I know you have to repent and then get out of the sin. If you do not have to get out of the sin then why should anyone stop their acts of sin if they confess and repent? I believe you have to remove yourself from the sin in order for it to be true repentance. I can steal and then ask God to forgive me but if I still continue in the sin how have I repented?

The Bible says that a man who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery and that no adulterer will enter into heaven. I can’t understand how He can forgive the sin of a second marriage when they continue in their adultery and then allow these people into heaven.

There is something I am very confused about with second marriages. It seems clear to me God hates divorce (which makes it a sin) and the Bible clearly states that a man who divorces his wife and takes another commits adultery.

I do believe God can not contradict himself so this states to me that after the ceremony is performed that he holds you to better or worse, rich or poor till death do you part. So why all the buts and ands and continuations of this very important commandment? Yes it is hard to swallow and of course people fall away but that does not change the command.

God said no adulterer will enter into heaven. I do not see where he forgives what to me is a sin for the second marriage and then allows these people into heaven. If marriage represent Christ and the church I just don’t see how God would sanction a second marriage. It just does not make since to me. What am I missing? I appreciate your hard work and in helping us find answers to difficult questions.

I absolutely love your site and have told everyone I know about it. My question is, I know that Jesus died for us so that we may be forgiven. I have been with my fiance for 6 years and lived together for 4 and we have 2 children together. We basically feel married. We want to get married but I don’t want to rush down to the court house, that’s not really what every little girl dreams of.

So anyway we’re going to get married, we have 2 kids, and we live together. I now have turned my life around and came back to Christ but do not feel like I need to leave Him cause we’re not married yet. Do you think I would not make it in the rapture or go to heaven for this reason? I have a relationship with God and try to do everything else right. I also ask for forgiveness all the time. But will I be forgiven even if I know I will commit the same sin again(in my case sex before marriage). I do feel guilty all the time, but I know that that’s the devil trying to make me feel unworthy of God’s grace. Whats your perspective?

Can you please explain to me what does Ecclesiastes 3: 11 mean?

Your website states that “death is the ultimate healing”: Is this view grounded in scripture? For example, how do you account for 1 Cor 15:26? Perhaps this page could be expanded to explain the Christian’s grounds for hope?

I heard a pastor I respect very much say that Jordan means death & judgement. I have not been able to verify this and looking it up in Strong’s numbers it means “descender”. Can you help?

Could you please tell me why the Lord’s Prayer is not fully spoken in the NIV Bible but is completed in the King James version. Also there are quite a few anomalies between these two versions of the Bible.

“Be not unwise, but understanding what the will of the Lord is…and be NOT DRUNK with wine, wherein is EXCESS, but be FILLED with the Spirit” Eph. 5:17-18. Filled means “totally controlled”. How does one accomplish being totally controlled by the Spirit of God, when one has some of the other “spirit” in them???

I shudder to think of those weak folks, whom having read the OK for alcohol, will fall.

Lord help us to abandon all for Him in these last days.

Thank you so much for answering all of my questions. You provide such a great service to Christians helping to deepen their faith.

From the letters John, Jude and Peter- in addition to many other scripture writings, it is very clear that the early church expected Christ to return in their lifetime. If they were so close to the Truth by a generation or less, why did they not have a clearer understanding that it would be at least thousands of years until the end of the age?

Why did they not have a better understanding of New Testament prophecy? We seem to have a better understanding in this century than any generation after the birth of Christ. In contrast, the Old Testament prophets clearly understood that the birth of Christ would not occur in their lifetime much less 500 years later. Why the difference in prophetic understanding between Old and New Testament writers?