I received the following “explanation” of Isaiah’s reference to Messiah. How would you address that? Thank you.
“In chapter 9 Isaiah is talking about the future invasion of Assyrian king, Sanheriv, who will defeat the Northern kingdom (Israel/the 10 tribes) and will attempt to destroy the Southern kingdom (Judea) as well. Isaiah is addressing Achaz, the king of Judea, promising him that Sanheriv’s plans will not be realized, because the child who will become a king of Judea, during whose reign Sanheriv’s army will be destroyed, is already born.
Isaiah prophesies here that his name (not him) will be called (among others) a Mighty G-d, and in his days the Assyrian army will be destroyed as a result of a miracle just like the one that happened to Jews in their struggle with Midianites (see verses 3-5 in this chapter).”
Assuming that he’s talking about Hezekiah and Sennacherib, I don’t have a problem with his historical interpretation. But it’s clear that Isaiah 9 was not completely fulfilled in the Lord’s supernatural defeat of the Assyrians on Mt. Scopus. A literal reading of Isaiah 9:6-7 can in no way be satisfied by this or any other historical event.
Hezekiah’s name might or might not mean Mighty God, but there’s no way it can mean Prince of Peace, Wonderful, and Counselor as well and while Hezekiah did reign on David’s throne for a time, he didn’t bring everlasting peace, justice, and righteousness to Israel and he certainly didn’t reign forever.
I’m guessing that this person is Jewish and is trying to deny the Messianic intent of Isaiah 9. In some Jewish circles Hezekiah is considered to be a model of the Messiah and Sennacherib is thought to be a fore runner of the anti-Christ, but before this I’ve never heard anybody say that they fulfilled Isaiah 9.