How can you advocate a position that does away with God’s complete sovereignty over where man spends his eternity? What do you do with the plain language of predestination in the Bible? “For whom he foreknew, he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son…” (Romans 8:29-30).
As I’ve said a number of times before, I believe man chooses his own destiny.
As your quote demonstrates, God’s foreknowing precedes His predestining in Romans 8:29-30. Knowing the end from the beginning God knew who would choose to be saved as Matt. 7:7-8, John 3:16, John 6:40, Romans 10:13 and others plainly give each of us the right to do. Knowing we would make the choice to be saved, God appointed (predestined) it to happen.
If God had complete sovereignty over where man spends his eternity, everyone would be saved, because 2 Peter 3:9 tells us He doesn’t want any to perish, and 1 Tim. 2:3-4 says He wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.
Also God would not be able to judge those who “refused to believe the truth and so be saved” (2 Thes. 2:10). A just God could not punish anyone for failing to do something they aren’t able to do.
When Moses said all God’s works are perfect and all His ways are just, and He’s a faithful God who does no wrong (Deut 32:4-5), He wasn’t saying that God can do anything He wants to because He’s God. He was saying God can’t do anything that isn’t just, or perfect, or right.
If God arbitrarily chose some to be saved and others to fuel the fires of Hell before any of us were born, He would not be any of the things Moses said He is, and in addition He would have been lying when He said He doesn’t want any to perish, but for all men to be saved. I don’t believe God could do such a thing.