I was wondering why in the passages pertaining to the Doom of Babylon (Specifically Isaiah 13-14 and Jeremiah 50-51) there appears to be a contradiction when some passages say that the land would never be inhabited again by man or beast versus the land would be abandoned by men but would be inhabited by animals. Are they talking about different periods of its destruction? How are those verses reconciled with each other?
Both Jeremiah 50:39 and Isaiah 13:19-22 speak of animal inhabitants in reference to Babylon. But I’ve been told that the animal names appearing in these verses are compromise translations that in the original language were at one time thought to be references to various kinds of demons. If that’s the case, then there will be no physical habitation whether by man or animal.