I’ve heard countless arguments from various Christians about not consuming alcohol. And, while I totally understand Christians choosing not to drink alcohol at all, the only verses in the Bible I can find regarding alcohol, is the sin of drunkenness. This, personally, isn’t an issue for me because I don’t drink alcohol at all. But, then there are those certain religious groups who say that even the consumption of caffeine (soda and coffee) is sinful.
Their argument is that we shouldn’t be putting anything into our bodies that alters our state of mind/being. Because our body is a temple, it should be left as pure as possible by avoiding caffeine and alcohol altogether. I don’t really agree with this, because I’m thinking this is more of a man made rule and not anything they’ve pulled from the Scriptures. When I try to tell these Christians that the only sin is drunkenness (as mentioned in the Bible), they’re adamant about the consumption of any of these drinks is sinful and we should stay away. Should I consider donating my coffee maker, or are these Christians placing their own meaning on certain scriptures?
I was reading one of your articles and you indicated that Christians who believe they will be saved have to be Born Again. I was under the impression that all Christians who call upon the name of Jesus will be saved. But it seems the article indicated that Christians can be Christian in name only. Does this mean that they will not have eternal life.? My understanding, in the article, they will be left behind at the Rapture. I am a Catholic, from a child on and believe the Lord Jesus died for our sins. I have since been Born Again, but would I have been saved without coming to the Born Again status?
In Gen chapter 6 it appears that before God commissioned Noah to construct an ark he had three sons. However, in Gen 11 it is stated that two years after the flood subsided, Shem was then only 100 years old. That being the case, how can so many preachers state that Noah took 120 years to build the ark? It seems to me that this 120 years claim is based on verse 3 of chapter six. Please give your mind on this matter.
I have a question about Romans 8:17. If we do not suffer for Christ or share in his sufferings, does that mean we will not have eternal life at all? I kept struggling with the thought that if I do not suffer for Christ or share in his sufferings, I felt that I do not belong to him at all. If we suffer for Christ, does that result more in eternal rewards or both salvation and eternal rewards?
In Genesis 20:1-7 God himself states that it was He who did not let Abimelech sin and touch Sarah. Now I know it says Abimelech had some very strong integrity which I assume to mean that he had some “fear of God” but even so, some of the “greats of faith” had a fear of God and still sinned. I also find throughout Scripture other instances where God “acts and/or intervenes” in certain circumstances. So how does this line up with mankind having complete free will/agency?
Gods blessings and a heart felt thanks for all you have taught me over the years. Could you please explain Matthew 15:22-28 especially 26-27: “But he answered and said, It is not meet to take the children’s bread, and to cast it to dogs. And she said, Truth, Lord: yet the dogs eat of the crumbs which fall from their master’s table.