The Son of God became the Son of Man. I know Jesus became a man. But why was He called the Son of Man? Please help me understand the meaning of this term.

While the prophets were 100% accurate when predicting the Messiah’s first advent and the situations surrounding it, the people of the day were more than likely thinking that the event and the Man and the circumstances were not much like they were described to be by the saints of old. By the same token, why are we to believe that the circumstances surrounding the second advent are going to be anything different?

I have been studying Ezekiel 38 & 39. I have noticed that in 39:2 the King James translation says “and leave the sixth part of thee”. I do not see this in any of my other translations. Why do the other translations not give this information or why does the King James have this information in it? No one has address this in any of the books I have read. I would like to know your thought on this.

Since God is omnipotent, omnicient and omnipresent then why would God need for any to guard his throne? Also what book, chapter and verse do people use to back this idea? I do not believe that the anointed cherub was doing that. I believe he was on the original earth overseeing it prior to Adam’s creation. What’s your take on this? I still need book, chapter and verse, because I’ve never found it in the holy bible.

I’m enjoying your mp3 studies, but have a question. In John, the verse about Jesus leaving and preparing a place for us with his Father, who has many rooms… Isn’t he speaking to his deciples who are Jewish? Then if he is speaking to the Jews I’m confused because if I understood the studies corectly the Jews are going to be on Earth with God, and the Gentiles will be in heaven. Please help me see where I’m confused.

Jack, I can always count on you to answer my questions in a way which helps me to understand.

I am currently reading ‘The Problem of Pain’ by C.S. Lewis and in one respect, I am understanding and in another respect, I feel very confused. My mind is trying desperately to wrap around the concepts presented here.

In one regard, Lewis states that God did not create us to love Him, rather He created us so He could love us. In another section of the book, not much further along, Lewis states that God does not need us. Because He is perfect, He needs nothing outside of Himself. Rather, He has made Himself need us for our own sakes, because beings that we are, we “need to be needed” and so He “needs” us out of Love for us, a perfect Love.

I hope I am making sense and quoting Lewis correctly. This is how I understand it anyway.

My question is this: Does anything we do here make God happy? Does He ever look down on us and smile? For if He truly does not need us beyond us needing Him, then does anything we do really affect His opinion of us one way or another?

I know the Bible mentions our good deeds being rewarded, if they are truly unselfish and thoughtful deeds, without thought to one’s own self or how it will benefit us. But does this mean at all that God is proud of us, or that we please Him in any way?

I just sat and cried after reading the book, without truly knowing why. Part of me understands and yet part of us does not and I guess that scares me and confuses me. Thanks for any insight.

Thank you so much for this website. It has been a tremendous help to me when I need to find an answer. I believe in prayer very much and have seen prayers answered, but if God already knows who will or won’t accept His plan of salvation and be saved, how can our prayers for a person’s salvation change anything?

Abraham was ready to give Isaac but was no use as his blood was stained with sin, right? So, after 2000 years, God offered His Son, as per the covenant, on the same mountain??

Is the visible scar of the Lord on His wrists and legs and ribs?

God bless you and your continuing work. I have a marriage question for you from a pastor’s perspective.

When and how does an illegitimate marriage move from being cursed to being blessed by God? For example, a believing wife divorces her believing husband without biblical grounds, and then shortly remarries an unbelieving husband. Now the woman is dealing with all manner of abuse issues including physical. This woman has recently been attending our church, with all these initial events in her past, and her remarriage is about a year old. She is a sincere but immature believer, dealing with the consequences of her sin the best she knows how, while living in pain and anguish.

I am unsure of the right pastoral counsel to give her concerning her marriage situation. She is hoping that her current husband will give his heart to Christ, but is that all that is needed? What is her responsibility to God and to her previous husband with regard to repentance? Is it simply a matter of her confessing and all will be made well? I understand that through confession she can receive individual forgiveness and purification, but does that mean that God will then move to heal her marriage as well, or will her marriage remain under a curse no matter what?

I have a question about Genesis but first off I want to say thank you Jack for all of your help!

I am a college student and there is so much misinformation about Jesus and Christianity! I am taking a theology course on the Bible and the book that we read along with the Bible states that Moses did not write any books of the Torah and that in Genesis chapter 1 and 2 there is a conflict of how the order of things are created. The book says that in chapter 1 man and woman were created at the same time but that in Genesis chapter 2 man was created and then woman.

I was wondering if you could clarify this. This book also said that Isaac proclaiming Rebekah to be his sister is simply a copy cat story (that it never happened) of Abraham and Sarah can you help with this too? Thank you so much for your time and effort! God Bless!