As I was reading Numbers I wondered why in chapter 26 verse 46 it mentions Asher’s daughter when Moses and Aaron were taking a census of all the males 20 years old and up for the purpose of going to war. When I Googled her I went to a website that says in Rabbinical literature that Serah was the daughter of Ashers second wife and not of his blood. She is the only female mentioned in this chapter and I was wondering if you knew anything about her and what the significance of her being mentioned here is.
Thank you so much for your site. I’m studying the temple of Ezekiel, and the boundaries of Israel during the Millennium and google search came up with your site. I read and took notes on your article “The Coming Temple.” Very well researched; thanks.
My questions are as follows:
1. the temple built in Shiloh … is it the temple described in Ezekiel 40-48? You confused me by saying (and I quote from your article)
“Following instructions given by Ezekiel, this Temple will be located north of Jerusalem in Shiloh.”
The instructions you are referring to, are they in Ezek. 40-48?
2. When Yahshua returns to build the fallen tent of David, which temple is that? You say that temple is Ez 40-48. Do you mean that Ezekiel describes two temples? Please clarify.
3. Have you considered the temple not made by hands? Have you considered that the tent of David could be the ‘family’ or house of David? The Greek word used here can be translated as family or house.
I love your site and may the Lord bless you and your ministry. My question surrounds Mary, the mother of Jesus. I understand that, since the Fall in the garden of Eden, all of mankind is born with a sinful nature. Although physically a virgin, can you tell me how Mary was “purified” to make her worthy to give birth to the Messiah? Some scriptural references would help immensely.
Please explain to me how you come to the conclusion that the “parable of the talents” and the parable of the “sheep and goats” have to do with people only in the Tribulation. I’ve read these parables many times before and I have never gotten that message.
Thank you for your insights. I’ve been reading about the inerrancy of the Bible, or rather, of the original writings. I’ve been systematically looking up the various verses that have discrepancies and reading about the reasons for that discrepancy. In reading the answers (which are all due to copyist errors), I wonder why, if the original writings were without error, don’t the bible translators/editors go back and correct those copyist errors … why leave them in? And, if the original writings are not available, how do you know they were without error?