I have question about Acts 8:9-25. I believe as you, that in the church age that all who accept Christ as savior have the Holy Spirit sealed within us at that very instant. However the story about the Samaritan believers seems to contradict this. What’s your take on why they didn’t receive the Holy Spirit until the laying on of hands by Peter and John?

Re: John 20:14-17. After the resurrection why did Jesus command Mary Magdalene not to touch Him for He had not yet ascended to the Father, yet later in the chapter, Jesus asked Thomas to feel His wounds?

If someone like an atheist, who previously rejected Christ, but later in life accepts him as their savior, then he is forgiven. Is not the Blasphemy of the Holy Spirit then essentially when a person is in a position where they permanently reject Christ?

I visit your web site often. It’s great! One question… You say that people who are in heaven can see what is going on here on earth. God says there will be no tears or sadness in heaven. Seems to me if they can see us it would indeed make them sad with tears to see the millions that are lost….Not to mention the suffering.

I have enjoyed reading your articles and “Ask a Bible Teacher” section on your web site. I do have a question regarding an issue that I’ve been struggling with regarding loyalty to one’s employer from a Biblical perspective.

I place a high value on quality workmanship and have developed a reputation among our clients for doing good quality work. In our shop however, there is a lot of pressure to get things done very quickly.

Employer/employee relations are not good. The culture within the company breeds apathy. Employee retention has been a chronic problem within the company for years. Recently there has been a rash of resignations.

As a Christian, I am torn between loyalty to my current employer and my desire for a more healthy work environment. I’m too close to the situation to be objective. Any feedback you could provide regarding a Biblical perspective on this matter would be greatly appreciated.

First I would like to tell you what a tremendous influence the site has in my life, and how much I enjoy it. Your website is like a fountain of truth that I eagerly frequently visit when I am in thirst for truth and righteousness.

I recently read your article on “The Passover: History and Prophecy” This article like many others, I opened to read in enjoyment of another dose of truth that all of your articles seem to offer. I stumbled upon the part where you wrote about Jesus having the last Supper, or Passover meal, and where you claim to say he stopped at the third cup, the cup of redemption. I examined all the gospels and I cannot find a trace where it mentions what cup Jesus is on when he offers his blood as a covenant symbolized by the wine. It actually seems to imply that he in fact never drinks the wine at all, for I cannot find a passage in any of the gospels saying that he drank wine. Can you help me understand this?

In reading your recent article on Passover something really rocked and shattered me, and I am in need of an explanation. In my quest for truth I am at peace when I come to an understanding, and things make sense. However when I find contradiction, it utterly upsets me. I am not one to try to discredit the word of God, in fact I try to find every possible scenario that could work. I want it to make sense and I try to make it so. But here I need a little help.

In Mark 14:25 it reads:

“Truly, I say to you, I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new in the kingdom of God.”

OK, I also know when Jesus says, “Truly”, he means it. Then in John 19:28-30 it reads:

“After this, Jesus, knowing that all was now finished, said, “I thirst.” A jar full of sour wine stood there, so they put a sponge full of the sour wine on a hyssop branch and held it to his mouth. When Jesus had received the sour wine, he said, “It is finished,” and he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.”

It is plain to see that Jesus did indeed drink the fruit of the vine and not in the new kingdom of God, but on the cross. How can this be? Please explain to me how this can be so.

RE: 1 John 5:7-8. For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. What do the three (spirit, water, and blood) represent?

It’s written in Hebrews that the Lord Jesus was crucified OUTSIDE the city but Jews say that the lamb is killed IN the temple. How can these be related?

In my reading and after talking to several people I know, I’m wondering about Heaven…as everyone does now and then. My question is: Who goes there when they die? or does anyone?

I ask because the bible has a lot of mention of people “sleeping for a time” until the judgement in Revelation.

It seems that maybe we die and sleep until the judgment, then perhaps wind up in our “prepared place” after the 1000 years of Christ’s reign on earth or something to that effect. But to add to my confusion, Christ says on the cross that the criminal next to him will be with Him in paradise that very day. Christ also says a lot about who will enter His kingdom…and it’s a lot more than faith alone, in Jesus’ words. Can you help me figure this out?