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I confess there is much I yet don’t understand about God’s relationship with the Jews and why He has seemingly abandoned them at times. I’d be thankful for any insight you could offer.

I recently received quite a shellacking from a co-worker when I was in the process of explaining some of the pagan origins of the traditions that are associated with Christmas. I had expressed my disdain for the practice of my church to include Santa Claus in this annual observance. I believe that Satan employs many different tactics to divert our attention from the saving grace of God. In this particular instance, it happens to be a ” jolly old elf”.

Aside from the obvious emphasis on materialism, I believe that the Santa hoax lays the dangerous groundwork for skepticism in the future beliefs of any child. I once witnessed such a troubling occurrence when, upon discovering the truth about Santa, an angry small boy questioned also the reality of Jesus. I am not certain that the secular world’s attempt to disassociate Christ’s name from the holiday is something that the Church should resist. Am I in error?

Who is the Prophet mentioned in John 1:21? I always thought that the Prophet was Jesus Christ but why would they ask John that if he was the Christ and the Prophet as if they were two separate people? Can you show me some passages that show Jesus is also the Prophet?

My question is about the passage in Matthew 2:15 that stated that when Joseph took Mary and Jesus out of Egypt after Herod died it was a fulfillment of the prophecy in Hosea 11:1. However, it seems like that is really out of context. Was that recognized prior to the birth of Christ as a Messianic Prophecy? How was that a fulfillment of prophecy?

I was watching a secular Archeologist’s TV program and he said, not once, but several times, and seemed to emphasize it each time, that the only secular reference to Jesus as a real, historical person, is found in the works of Josephus. I don’t believe that is so, but I find it difficult to think that a man of his public stature and profession would make such a claim. So, please tell me the facts. Is this man ignoring other secular references to our Lord so as to make such a statement “true”? Or, are there no others of the time who wrote about Jesus?

I have been reading about His prayer and how we can pray it for ourselves – for every area of our life, but especially concerning spiritual matters to further the Lord’s work. What is your opinion about it and do you think we can pray it for our family members too? Blessings to you.

In Isaiah 53 it says He was crushed for our iniquities. I know the prophecies were very specific on what suffering Jesus was subjected to, the abuse, whipping, piercing & crucifixion, etc… but I don’t remember seeing anything about this part of the Prophecy. Would you please show me where this prophecy was fulfilled? Thank You & God Bless you and your ministry.

It seems like you have made a case that marriage or divorce need only consist of an internal attitude of heart among the parties in a coupling, so that any committed couple would become divorced in God’s sight at the point where they no longer wanted to be married, even if it were an unspoken feeling. Do I have this right? If so, then since this state of affairs can develop involuntarily over time in spite of the best intentions, how can such an ‘internal’ divorce ever be considered a sin? There is no act of violation, but only a falling out of love.

I am having an issue with the Magi saying they had “seen his star in the East.” If they were indeed the Parthian priests descended from Daniel’s group, which I believe they were, they would have been east of Bethlehem when they encountered the star, meaning they should have seen “his star in the west” when looking back toward Bethlehem. What am I missing? Are they meaning to say that they were in the east when they saw the star in the west?

Regarding the “Great Revival” and other questions previously submitted about the “Dominion Doctrine”. I know that any doctrine that is not based on scripture ultimately is of satanic origin. You stated that you could find no scriptural support for that particular belief and you offered scriptures that refute it. Can you expound on the beginnings of that teaching and discuss the harm that can come to the Church through the proliferation of Dominion Theology?