I was wondering if you believe that something about the human reproductive system changed after the flood that rendered the nephilim incapable of interbreeding with humanity as they did in Gen. 6. Why not just continue to mate as they did prior to the flood?
When I first accepted Jesus as my Lord and Saviour, 2 days later I received the gift of The Holy Spirit and I spoke in tongues for long time. I don’t understand why some believers attribute glossolalia ( tongues) to the work of the enemy.
Have just read your article ‘The End Times According To Ezekiel, Part 5′ In it you said; “Even when Jesus came to visit, He stood and taught on the Temple Mount, but He never entered it”. I found quite a few that said He taught in the Temple. Can you explain what you mean by this?
In your question titled “Three In One” where someone asked if there was a verse that said the Father, Son, and Spirit are one, what about 1 John 5:7?
One comment (I liked) in particular was this one; “I can’t imagine the enemy carrying in enough of any traditional energy source to supply Israel’s national power and heating needs for 7 years, so a more modern application is in order”. Some thing else came to mind when I read this. Israel becomes energy independent.
Why did God have the Israelites that worshiped the golden calf killed, but do nothing to Aaron who fashioned the calf? And why was God so angry with Moses and Aaron over the water miracle in the desert, that they were not allowed to enter the promised land?
In John 19:30 it appears Jesus drank what the soldiers offered. However, in Mark 15:23 it appears He didn’t and the other two gospels don’t mention anything about it. I’m sure there is a good reason why there appears a discrepancy but can’t think what!
I was nine or ten when my dad told me that he was not my father. He explained that an incubus had crawled in the window and had sex with my mother. I was the result. I was utterly destroyed by this lie. I KNEW that I KNEW that I KNEW that God could never love me.
As far as your discussion of and references to 1
John 5:19 (“the whole world is under the control of
the evil one”) and Matthew 4:8, where Jesus did not
dispute Satan’s claim to the kingdoms of the earth,
how do you square that with God’s sovereignty?
Q. My wife and I have been going over the tribes of Israel and we noticed something and can not explain it. There is no tribe of Joseph. Ephraim and Manasseh are Josephs sons and Levi of course is the priests there for I guess they don’t count as a tribe. Another oddity which seems to not get much play is Joseph’s sons are from the Egyptian Pharaoh’s Daughter which by the standards of Hebrew tradition means they are not Jews. How-ever when they are brought to Jacob before he dies he lays his hands on them and adopts and blesses them, so technically they became their father’s brothers. Any thoughts?