First I would like to tell you what a tremendous influence the site has in my life, and how much I enjoy it. Your website is like a fountain of truth that I eagerly frequently visit when I am in thirst for truth and righteousness.
I recently read your article on “The Passover: History and Prophecy” This article like many others, I opened to read in enjoyment of another dose of truth that all of your articles seem to offer. I stumbled upon the part where you wrote about Jesus having the last Supper, or Passover meal, and where you claim to say he stopped at the third cup, the cup of redemption. I examined all the gospels and I cannot find a trace where it mentions what cup Jesus is on when he offers his blood as a covenant symbolized by the wine. It actually seems to imply that he in fact never drinks the wine at all, for I cannot find a passage in any of the gospels saying that he drank wine. Can you help me understand this?
In reading your recent article on Passover something really rocked and shattered me, and I am in need of an explanation. In my quest for truth I am at peace when I come to an understanding, and things make sense. However when I find contradiction, it utterly upsets me. I am not one to try to discredit the word of God, in fact I try to find every possible scenario that could work. I want it to make sense and I try to make it so. But here I need a little help.
In Mark 14:25 it reads:
“Truly, I say to you, I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new in the kingdom of God.”
OK, I also know when Jesus says, “Truly”, he means it. Then in John 19:28-30 it reads:
“After this, Jesus, knowing that all was now finished, said, “I thirst.” A jar full of sour wine stood there, so they put a sponge full of the sour wine on a hyssop branch and held it to his mouth. When Jesus had received the sour wine, he said, “It is finished,” and he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.”
It is plain to see that Jesus did indeed drink the fruit of the vine and not in the new kingdom of God, but on the cross. How can this be? Please explain to me how this can be so.
RE: 1 John 5:7-8. For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. What do the three (spirit, water, and blood) represent?
Please interpret this passage, as you believe what Paul is saying regarding the Gentiles? “Ye know that ye were Gentiles carried away unto these dumb idols even as ye were led”. (This is from 1 Cor. 12:2 in the KJV)
Does this mean Gentiles are now Jews? Or, Does this mean the Gentiles are now believers in Jesus Christ, having become “Born Again”, yet remain Gentiles?
I am reading through your book “7 Things You Have to Know to Understand End Times Prophecy” and am finding it very rewarding. My question today concerns Calvinism, and why so many are embracing this teaching. It seems to me that if a person holds to the five points of Calvinism then you cannot have any assurance of your salvation. I wonder if they see something I don’t and would appreciate any comments you might have.
How come I can hear what God is saying to me and know when I need to do something, but often I cannot act on it. I can’t seem to get my body under control. I understand that its not my works but my belief, which is that I’m redeemed by Jesus and what he did, it just really frustrates me.
I love your site and am blessed every day by your gift. The more I learn, the more I want to learn. I have a question concerning the answer you gave to the person asking about faith vs. works in the Old Testament and post rapture. You answered with: Old Testament Judaism is a faith plus works religion. They were required to obey the Law as evidence of their faith (Exodus 19:5-6), and could lose their salvation for disobedience. Please explain to me why in Romans it states the opposite. We know that scripture does not contradict scripture, so what am I missing here?