I was married to a non-believer who after many years of marriage chose to leave the marriage based on our differences. I wouldn’t allow certain behaviors in our home, drugs, drinking, and other illegal activities, for my safety and my child’s. He attributed my resistance to my faith (not to mention they were illegal) and told me I wasn’t any fun. He didn’t want to live with the rules and ethics that I needed and lived by, and even felt judged though I didn’t, because I asked him to keep these things out of our home. We went to counseling with a Christian counselor who met with us together and separately, who eventually told me our marriage was over because there was no desire on my husband’s part to be my husband and give up the things that were destroying our marriage, my love for him, my trust in him and my respect for him. We remained separated for 4 years before mutually filing for divorce and now today are on good terms and he respects my faith as mine, though he wants nothing to do with it.

I was told by the marriage counselor that my divorce was permitted by 1 Corinthians 7:15, and that if I remarry, it would not be adultery (Matt. 5: 30-31)

Can I have your opinion on this verdict? I have met a great man who I am interested in, but he would like further clarification as he too is a Christian and there was not infidelity in my marriage that led to the divorce.

It is a fact that the battle that brings Russia’s invasion of Israel to an end results in the destruction of “all men of war,” Ezekiel 39:20. This ought to make it obvious that the battle described in Ezekiel 38:21-22 and 39:1-6 is the very same battle commonly referred to as “Armageddon.” Compare Isaiah 34:1-6, 63:1-6, Revelation 14:19-20, 16:12-16, and 19:11-21. It is quite plain that “all men of war” are destroyed in this same battle in which the Lord destroys Russia and her allies, Ezekiel 39:20.

If this battle should then occur before the Tribulation, as some teach, or even right after the beginning of the Tribulation, as others teach, then who would fight during the Tribulation? Remember, “all men of war” are destroyed in this battle. I take this to mean that every human being who has “war” in their heart will be destroyed from among men. Who then would fight during the Tribulation if “all men of war” have already been wiped out when the Lord destroys Russia and her allies? Well…??? What do you think Jack? Is this right?

I enjoy your website very much. So filled with valuable information. Thanks so much.

Just briefly, are the boundaries of the land of Israel today the same as they were in the Old Testament? My husband said he doesn’t think the boundaries from the OT could be definitely defined by today’s standards. (In other words, they could give some of what they have to Palestine without upsetting things.)

Thanks for any insight into this you might have!

There is a wrong teaching that baptism in water is necessary for salvation. They use mainly the verses Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38, 1 Peter 3:18 and John 3:5. I would like to know explanation of these verses that these verses do not mean that baptism is necessary for salvation but grace by faith only.

I question your statement that “scholars have looked for centuries for a fresh water lake the Israelites could have crossed and of course none exists.” I believe that you are mistaken.

The “Red Sea” by which Moses led Israelites on their exodus from Egypt was not the body of water now called the Red Sea. The Hebrew word is Yam Suph [soof], meaning “Sea of Reeds.” It is now believed that the Sea of Reeds “was perhaps located at the Southern extension of the present Lake Mensaleh.” (The Interpreters Dictionary of the Bible, Volume 4, Nashville: Abingdon Press, 1962, page 21)

G. Ernest Wright (Biblical Archaeology, Abridged Edition, Philadelphia: Westminster Press, 1960, page 38) writes, “They chose ‘the way of the wilderness by the Reed Sea’ (Ex.13.18) This, and not ‘Red Sea’, is the correct rendering of the Hebrew Yam Suph, and it is highly improbable that we should identify it with the northern arm of the Red Sea known today as the Gulf of Suez.”

I feel sure that in the light of this information you will amend your previous answer to the Reed or Red Sea question, so as not to mislead your readers. What matters is not the location of the miracle of God’s providence, but the fact of it occurring. That the scene was most likely – from the available evidence – to have been the lake and not the sea does not diminish God’s power, not his care for his people.

Two quick questions. In Acts 21: 38-39, it says the chief capt. asked if Paul was a certain Egyptian, but Paul concurred that he was a Jew from Tarsus. Why did the capt. ask if he was Egyptian? I’ve just always assumed that Paul was Jewish. 2nd question-I kind of think chap.s 21 & 22 are very symbolic of no exclusion, no excuse. At the end of 21 and the beginning of 22, we have Paul stating that he is a Jew by birth(Acts 21:39), a Greek by education(Acts 22:3), a Roman by citizenship (Acts 22:25). And then in chap. 23, he is also claiming to be a Pharisee by posterity(Acts 23:6).

I’m wanting to discuss this with my wife, but I want to make sure I’m explaining it correctly. When Paul stands to share his testimony of the Gospel and his conversion to “The Way” we see that he is coming, not as a member of one party dispensing his faith on all, but as an equal member of all parties involved in this congregation.

To me, this seems to be showing one of God’s profound ways of offering the same message of Salvation to the Jews, Greeks, Romans and Pharisees, while at the same time leaving no one with an excuse if they reject. Paul is able to come to each party as one of their own. We also learn in another one of Paul’s letters where he says,” I have become all things to all men, so that I might win them to the Glory of God”. What are your thoughts on this one?

Thank you, again, for your dedication to the work of our Lord.

I have a problem with the time line regarding the return of Babylon to the status of a world center for commerce and government. What a tremendous accomplishment to build Babylon from what it is today to what it seems to be at the time of its destruction. When I find that it is all to take place during the seven year tribulation it seems impossible.

What are your thoughts on this? Where have I erred?

Jack what happened to the Earth between Gen. 1 and Gen. 2? If like you say there was a great Gap in time, and I believe this, then what happened and why didn’t God the Father tell us what happened?

It seems that the Earth was hit by a asteroid or comet or what have you, evidence suggest this. Mars being pitted on one side most likely coming from what some claim that a planet exploded creating the belt. Most likely the Super Volcanoes that are being talked about lately had gone off before.

Did these apocalyptic events take place millions of years ago during the revolt of the Angels or did this happen during the time of the Great Flood?

If a man is a believer in Christ, but his wife is not, can she receive salvation from God based on her husband’s commitment to our Lord and Saviour?

I understand that many Biblical scholars believe Jesus’ triumphal entry into Jerusalem was on Sunday, April 6, A.D. 32; His death on the cross was Thursday afternoon, April 10; and He arose before sunrise the Sunday of April 13. Pentecost, the birth of the Church, was fifty days later. While only God knows the precise year and timing of the Rapture, is there any Biblical reference that may give a clue that it could occur on a “birthday” of the Church?